68ā95ā99.7 Rule
en.wikipedia.org
en.wikipedia.org
Can you imagine there was a time when the entire US options market was running on flat volatility vs strike price (implying that financial asset prices are lognormal). Must have been cool to just buy the cheapest, most OTM options and collect big results every now and then.
If the outfall from a 7-sigma is disastrous, you have to try to prevent it, because it WILL happen eventually given enough goes.
The easiest way to get something that's not actually normal in the typical central limit theorem construction is to have the variables be just slightly not independent. Which becomes obvious in retrospect after you start realizing the dependence and shit hits the fan.
Also natural distribution assumes you donāt have someone trying to game the extremes to make money. If being seven feet tall resulted in billions weād have people researching how to grow taller people.
You can see stuff like this in distributions of tax returns - many people will be unexpectedly clustered right below certain cut-off amounts.
I'm not a statistician, but I don't think that's how that works. Given enough events, the likelihood of something happening goes up, but it never becomes a certainty.
Likewise when the statistical 100 year statistical storm happens, the next one is not 100 years away. It could happen the following week without violating the underlying statistics. (Of course if a 100 year storm keeps happening year after year, then the threshold for what is likely to happen once in a hundred years probably needs to be revised.)
His barbell OTM put strategy almost certainly did badly in 2022, because of the failure of the Vix index to spike and the decline of the S&P 500 being orderly.
https://greyenlightenment.com/2022/10/08/tail-hedging-strate...
So both parts of the barbell lost money, which is not supposed to happen. This is why you have to be warry of individuals and strategies that are overhyped. If a strategy is getting a lot of positive press, it likely means it's saturated. If a lot of quants are buying the same options for the same hedging purposes, who is going to sell them?
This may have been possible pre-1987. Since then, out of money put options have a very steep skew, so not possible. Even if OTM put options are very cheap nominally, but by having much higher implied volatility makes them much more expensive compared to how much they would otherwise cost without the skew. This from a Kelly perspective makes them much less lucrative if one was to try to construct a strategy with this. It cuts your ROI big time.
Itās really a heuristic on where to start with analysis, though. Not a result in and of itself.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ShapiroāWilk_test
I always think of normality as a nice theory for simple stuff, but you want to be running sensitivity analyses for all of your assumptions, including normality (which I don't think I've ever seen professionally, tbh).
3.14159
3.1416
3.142
3.14
3.1
3
I wonder what tests I screwed up in collage!
[0] https://www.straightdope.com/21341975/did-a-state-legislatur...
⢠š§(4.4 ā š§)/10 when 0 ⤠š§ ⤠2.2
⢠0.49 when 2.2 < š§ < 2.6
⢠0.50 when 2.6 ⤠š§
Shah's approximation is accurate to within roughly ±½%.Examples:
- The area under the standard normal curve within 1 standard deviation of zero is approximately 2(1(4.4 ā 1))/10 = 0.68. (The factor of 2 is there to get the area on both sides of zero).
- The area within 2 standard deviations of zero is approximately 2(2(4.4 ā 2))/10 = 0.96.
- The area within 3 standard deviations of zero is approximately 1 (because 2.6 ⤠3).
- The probability of sampling from the standard normal distribution and getting a value less than 1.5 deviations above the mean is approximately 0.5 + 1.5(4.4-1.5) = 0.935. (The 0.5 term is there because we need to include the area to the left of 0, and Shah's approximation only counts the area to the right of zero.)
Reference:
Arvind K. Shah (1985) A Simpler Approximation for Areas under the Standard Normal Curve, The American Statistician, 39:1, 80, DOI: 10.1080/00031305.1985.10479396 (https://twitter.com/jordancurve/status/958026273149915136/ph...)
I'm not sure what intellectual performance is even supposed to be implied by any given IQ score, given that the scores commonly used today are just a linear mapping from standard deviations above or below mean.
That said, on the low end at -3Ļ I would expect a serious deviation from a normal distribution just from the effect of dementia.
(There's a factor of two somewhere in here for the two tailed nature, but the point stands)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/68%E2%80%9395%E2%80%9399.7_rul...
And as you say, modern tests just aren't calibrated in that way. The WAIS-IV is calibrated for the 70-130 range [0]. It's used to provide broad ranges (e.g. 85-100 vs. 115-130), not to provide useful differentiations on the high end like 158 vs. 159.
In fact, the error increases with the score [1]. There is less certainty for a score of 145 than there is for 115. It's just not designed for separating geniuses from super geniuses or however you want to put it.
[0] https://www.quora.com/Whats-the-highest-IQ-score-you-can-get...
(Not a direct source I'm afraid, but the materials are proprietary.)
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IQ_classification#Giftedness
(There are several citations in this section, pertinent discussion below the table.)