Saying men and women have different chromosomes is circular logic. You're saying that XX = woman and XY = man, and then defining "man" and "woman" in terms of the standard you set up for them.
As I responded to in a different reply, skeletal structures exist on a distribution. Those distributions generally overlap, meaning there are some women closer to the "male" average, and some men closer to the "female average. That doesn't determine their gender or even their sex.
Edit to add: you list hormones as a determining factor -- but hormones can be adjusted. Would you agree that a person who achieves "male" hormones through pills or injections qualifies as male? Or vice versa?
Saying they have different averages ignores that distribution, and again would arbitrarily classify some people as the opposite of their chromosomal classification.
"Women can have children" -- even among XX women, that's clearly false. Or are you saying that women who can't bear children aren't women?
And again, "sex" is not "gender": https://www.ons.gov.uk/economy/environmentalaccounts/article...