That would be a fair comparison to a long distance bus.
Yes, absolutely, in fact the US government did their own study on this question
https://highways.dot.gov/public-roads/spring-1996/economic-i...
The folks I was responding to were discussing the direct economics of maintaining and operating the trains, and not their economic benefits. No one pays money to use the interstate, why should they need to pay money to use the train?
> The mode of transport seems to be fundamentally broken.
You're American aren't you?
But economically viable and subsided are mutually exclusive because when at that moment the question is not being asked wether the person consuming the good would pay the full price of the service. Economically viable does not mean an expert or technocrat gets to decide for you wether or not something it worth it. Deciding wether or not something is worth is fundamentally an individual’s decision. Of course the expert may say, “look, the cost of getting x amount of people from a to b is y times cheaper using this solution”. But that never takes into account if the people would have preferred a different mode of transport all together. For example, some may prefer the greater carrying flexibility of a car or the ride comfort of one. Of course that is not to say that automotive transport isn’t subsided and that the owners pay the full cost of ownership. The TLDR of it is that economically viable requires people to put money where their mouth is. Someone else CANNOT by definition make that decision unless you believe that some people have “correct” values and others don’t.
The target audience for the railways is less upper middle class, and more middle and lower classes.
Just like most airports then ?
Also some countries see it as a service, not a source of revenue
Rail has very low externalities, which is why we might want to subsidise it.