How the Wealthy Save Billions in Taxes by Skirting a Century-Old Law
propublica.org
propublica.org
Update/summary for those reading: The answer seems to be (if I understand the comments below correctly) that inherited assets' cost bases magically get stepped up to their fair market value without tax consequences, which would explain why kicking the can down the road is beneficial, as well as one reason why generational wealth is such an incredibly impactful loophole.
I'm not sure how, but the "margin debt is an infinite free money hack" somehow caught on and won't go away. It's not a free money hack, it's debt that must be repaid with income. Which is always taxable.
There is also jurisdictions were there is no inheritance tax, which would otherwise require to sell at least some of the estate.
Additionally, the wealthy will usually leave only enough assets in the estate to cover the liabilities plus maybe some more up to the estate tax threshold so it goes through tax free to the heirs. The rest will have been distributed through various other methods to avoid taxation.
The intent of performing the wash sale isn't to reduce your liability from proceeds of the future sale of whatever security you're trying to "wash", it's to use the wash to offset this year's gains from the sale of other securities.
1) I can't reap the benefit, because I don't have enough income to save for retirement (outside of my pension). If I did, like most people, I'd likely be saving in something like a 401(k) that is tax-deferred. Tax-deferred retirement accounts, by law, gain no additional tax benefit from a wash trade. https://www.irs.gov/newsroom/what-if-my-401k-drops-in-value
2) You incentivize people to sell and buy additional securities outside of their normal investment planning. This will have a market distorting effect when compounded over many, many stockholders.
If they’re really crafty, the heirs will overvalue assets when stepping up the cost basis so they can actually claim losses in the future.
From Wikipedia:
“The tax code of the United States holds that when a person (the beneficiary) receives an asset from a giver (the benefactor) after the benefactor dies, the asset receives a stepped-up basis, which is its market value at the time the benefactor dies (Internal Revenue Code § 1014(a)).”
This only makes sense to me if you have a very large, very diversified portfolio.
That is equivalent to “your stock portfolio will never grow”.
> This only makes sense to me if you have a very large, very diversified portfolio.
You do not need to own much of the stocks to observe a fall relative to the purchase price in a stock you want to keep. The original “wash sale” prohibition just complicates tax planning - for everyone. Since it’s mathematically absurd, it’s prone to loopholes. But you need to spend time to find the loopholes, so wealthy people are (and will) suffer less.
“Wash sale” prohibition harms ordinary stock owners, like me, much more than it harms Steve Balmer.
Realized gains are the only gains that are taxed. You aren't paying capital gains taxes on stocks when you aren't cashing them out.
So if a person has $100 million in stocks, some of which are up, and some of which are down. Decides to take out $1 million for a birthday party. And then wash trades a million dollar "paper loss" in their portfolio to cover for the $1 million they cashed out.
They'll still have practically the same portfolio, some of which has gained, and some of which has lost, minus the shares they sold to pay for the birthday party. If they invested well, it's possible that their overall portfolio has indeed gained. But thanks to the wash trade they don't have to pay any taxes on the $1 million in gains that they just cashed out.
> “Wash sale” prohibition harms ordinary stock owners, like me, much more than it harms Steve Balmer.
If you own it in a 401(k) or equivalent you can't claim capital gains losses as a deduction regardless (not until you start taking it out following retirement).
> And then wash trades a million dollar "paper loss" in their portfolio to cover for the $1 million they cashed out.
This scenario that bothers you is pretty much unrealistic. It’s mathematically impossible if your portfolio grows to offset each cash out with a paper loss. Especially with securities you want to hold. Usually you just sell, register an offsetting loss and forget about the losing stock.
And in your calculations you forget the price I paid into the positions. So a year ago I had $200 and put them into stocks A and B, $100 each. Today I’ve sold A for $150, B for $50, got back $200 with zero profit per year. Zero profit - zero taxes, fair?
Now I’ve decided that $200 is a bit more than I need and decided to put $50 back in the market. What to buy? Oh, B looks good at $50, let’s put $50 back there. Suddenly, the tax collector says “this purchase (spending money on the stock) turns your $0 profit into $50 profit, taxes please”. How comes?
Note that my purchase of B back is not free. I will owe taxes if I sell it for more than $50 (previously - only if I sell it for more than $100). Also, for a year any profit on B will be taxed as an ordinary income, which can be much more than 18% on a long term sale.
TLDR. “Wash sale” rule creates more harm than good for an individual investor, and any harm it inflicts on Steve Balmers of the world is inflicted on 401k’s of the working people.
> It’s mathematically impossible if your portfolio grows to offset each cash out with a paper loss
Unless you have a very, very large and distributed portfolio compared to the amount of cash you are taking out any given year. Such as for a billionaire who wants to bequeath their billions to a tax-free charitable trust after they die.
> And in your calculations you forget the price I paid into the positions.
I was making the math easy for rhetorical purposes.
> Suddenly, the tax collector says “this purchase (spending money on the stock) turns your $0 profit into $50 profit, taxes please”. How comes?
Because you haven't "realized" the loss in B. Instead you've made a market-manipulating double trade.
If I make a loss tomorrow I still have to pay my income taxes. Why should it be different for stock market purchases?
1. You can use losses to offset $3k of ordinary income per year.
2. Tax deferral is still advantageous. For example, you can defer until retirement when your tax bracket is lower, and also allow that amount to compound in the meantime.
3. If you die, your heirs get a step up in basis, so the tax is in fact ultimately avoided.
I think there are very good historical reasons for basis step-up, namely, that it is unreasonably hard to expect heirs to figure out basis from a deceased, especially for illiquid assets. But since brokerages have to track basis since 2012, it would seem easy to, at least, disallow basis step-up for securities that have cost basis information held by the brokerage.
But then can't they assume the cost basis is $0 if they can't provide documentation to back up something higher? I thought that's how it works in general when you don't have cost basis information available.
It seems very pertinent to me. Taxes pay for the common good.
If people are using loopholes or workarounds to not pay tax, then the common good suffers.
And we all benefit from the common good, even, maybe perhaps _especially_ the billionaires whose companies receive subsidies, or contracts from the government.
People realize the 401k was once a “loophole”? Some CPA found the law and started to use it and everyone piled on.
Why should the basis be what it is today vs zero? It's pretty simple, if person dies on day N, and we know what we would tax the item as if he sold it on day N-1, then we should be able to know what we should be able to tax it at if sold by the heirs on day N+1.
Zero would acknowledge that the heirs paid literally zero for it. conversely, if the the asset tremendously rose in value (i.e. an order of magnitude or more). then even with knowing the cost basis, one can effectively treat the cost basis as zero without significant effect on the heir (i.e. at a 33% tax rate, if it grows by an order of magnitude and you treat it as 0, instead of 10% of the current value, you only increased the amount of tax paid by 3.3% of the value). If it grows by even more than an order of magnitude, than the percentage drops (2 orders of magnitude and you are at 1/3 of a percent extra vs treating it as zero).
i.e. there really isn't much of a loss to the heir if one has to treat the asset as zero cost basis. and one can always provide said cost basis in the cases where the asset growth can't be measured in even a single digit order of magnitude (but once one breaks a single digit, then there's very little loss to the heir).
In general, I dislike trying to treat different assets classes differently, the rule should be no step up, track cost basis or you as the heir have to treat it as zero.
See the "Financial Impact of Tax Deferral" section in this article, https://www.securitybenefit.com/tax-center/article/how-tax-d....
No, it is not. It adds 5% when you cross into the top tax bracket.
It's a common misconception that the step-up in basis means the heirs don't pay taxes, and therefore the billionaires are giving us the biggest shaft.
The heirs pay estate tax, and once they pay the tax, the basis resets. It would be very unfair if it didn't. However, the tax exemption for the estate tax is quite large (about $13MM for federal for 2023, but going to $7MM in 2026).
For billionaires though, the estate tax exemption is negligible. The heirs end up paying estate tax for everything they inherit minus $13MM, which is nothing for them.
So, again, if this benefits anyone, it's the less rich people.
The original “wash sale” prohibition is pretty unfair and damaging to every single stock owner. Since it does not hold water mathematically, it’s prone to loopholes. You need to spend more time to find loopholes - so only wealthy tend to benefit from them. You want to make stock ownership more “equitable” - repel the original “wash sales” law.
Overall, the article is against tax planning, picturing it (deliberately? due to math incompetence?) as tax avoidance. You do not need to be Steve Balmer to wish to use some tax planning, ask me how I know - and I am just a software engineer.
Let's take a concrete example given in the article. BHP group. You can buy BHP shares in 3 different primary listings. BHP.L[1] (on the LSE, listed in GBp), BHP[2] (on the NYSE, listed in USD) or BHP.AX[3] (listed in AUD on the ASX). These are fundamentally the exact same shares in the same company, but are listed in different countries. The only difference between them is the listing currency you pay to buy/receive on sale. When you receive the shares you actually get the same exact ISIN (I believe).
So say you hold some BHP and its price is underwater at the moment. You believe in the long-term prospects of the company and have made profits in general that you have to pay tax on. You could sell the BHP, realise the loss (offsetting these other taxes to an extent) and buy again. However that "bed and breakfasting" (as it used to be called in the UK) has been declared illegal. If you were to sell in the US and then immediately buy on any US market that would be illegal. But if you sell in the US and then buy in London or Sydney (in this example) that is allowed.
How the tax advantage works is you are literally taking an extra mark-to-market loss and offsetting that against other profits. Yes if you instead held and eventually made a profit you would pay less in that scenario, but in that scenario you are paying in future dollars whereas with the offsetting you are gaining today's dollars. Today's dollars are more value because of discounting.
[1] https://finance.yahoo.com/quote/BHP.L?p=BHP.L&.tsrc=fin-srch
[2] https://finance.yahoo.com/quote/BHP?p=BHP&.tsrc=fin-srch
[3] https://finance.yahoo.com/quote/BHP.AX?p=BHP.AX&.tsrc=fin-sr...
Start at a value that is truly eye-watering for your average citizen, one which the lower-99% will never reach in their lifetimes. Say, for argument, $10M.
Implement an algorithm that plots out a Sigmoid Curve - 0% taxation at $10M, and increasing slowly at the beginning. Once it gets close to the inflection point, it rises rapidly to over 80% taxation, at which point it then slows down again, reaching 100% taxation for everything above the maximum value.
Which would be set at something truly ridiculously high - say, $100M.
That way, we have a smooth curve that cannot be “gamed” anywhere as easily as abrupt taxation levels. And we use simpler, market-valued assets from anywhere in the world that focus on how the hyper-wealthy sock away their wealth.
As such, any sort of classic investment is most definitely on the table, especially if it is ever valued by an open market. Housing, land, gold, stocks, bonds, business partnerships, you name it. All on board for taxation.
The nice thing about Sigmoid curves in a taxation role is that they start off incredibly gentle - you will likely not may much tax at all until you hit $25M of net worth, because it’s paid progressively on any amount above $10M. But at the same time, you pay 100% taxation on any net worth above $100M.
It is truly a progressive tax, leaving plenty of room for the ambitious, but is punishingly draconian on the vampiristically greedy.
This is the big problem with trying to tax the wealthy in America: There are just way too many ways to "not technically own" something, but still in reality be in complete control of it and benefit from it. Trusts, corporations, foundations: All these phony paper entities that you can "move" your stuff into in order to pretend to the government that it's not yours anymore, when it is in all reality totally controlled by you.
I worked for a founder once where basically everything he owned and benefitted from was owned by a "charitable foundation" or something. His homes, cars, boats, everything. He probably paid zero in taxes, whereas I, a chump, paid the normal rate. Total scam, but hey, that's what you get when the wealthy write the law.
You make it sound like this was something invented by tax -dodging capitalists getting one over on the government. But in reality the only reason paper entities exist at all is because government wills it so.
And now you make it sound like tax-dodging capitalists have no influence over a government's will. Welcome to the world of Citizens United, lobbying and such.
As much as I oppose the idea, if it must be done, the only way I can see the government not squandering and corrupting all the money is to just immediately distribute it amongst the populace.
Government spending is a loan, which is repaid thru taxes.
Tax avoidance is the debtor defaulting on that loan. (Both morally and fiscally.)
If someone joins a start-up and cashes out with $10M, tax it at 60%, not 20% long-term capital gains.
Nobody needs more than $4M.
Or, go and move to mid-west and retire. US tax payers don't need to subsidize your lifestyle so you can live in NYC or SF.
$120k/year would be a bit over a 33% raise.
Married filing jointly (MFJ) or Single (S) on the $120k/year in capital gains would be:
MFJ: 0% up to $83,350. 15% above that amount. For a total tax of $5497.50 in federal taxes.
S: 0% up to $41,675. 15% above that amount. For a total tax of $11748.75 in federal taxes.
The California tax rates for income or capital gains are:
MFJ: $3,623.42 plus 8% of the amount over $104,910. For a total of $4830.62 in state taxes.
S: $2,918.91 plus 9.3% of the amount over $66,295. For a total tax of $7913.48 in state taxes.
Net, after tax income is:
MFJ: $9139.32 per month
S: $8361.48 per month
These both compare quite favorably to the average ~$6,200 after-tax income my household lives on. And that's without subtracting the $650 additional taken out for the pension (because a person living on interest doesn't need to subtract money for retirement, as they are effectively retired!!). Or the extra $180 or so taken out for other post-tax payroll deductions.
Sneaky snakes! So they are wash selling without really selling anything so they can harvest the maximum tax losses every year without actually making any sales. There are lies, dang lies, and tax accountancy...
Please stop voting for candidates that are members of the party that's primary purpose is to prop up the uber rich and make them richer, faster, at the expense of everyone else. The 2nd Amendment isn't ever going anywhere, and you will never, never ever advance economically voting against your personal economic interests. If everyone voted only in their personal economic interests, employment would skyrocket, crime and poverty would plummet, and the economy would boom. The uber rich aren't stupid with their votes, 99.9% of the other members of their party are.
That's the problem. To many of them it's a score.
> “I do not want to sell these stocks at the present market,” wrote R.H.T. “Would it be legal for me to sell these stocks and deduct the loss from this year’s income, even though I bought them in again the same day?” Yes, the Journal responded, the transaction was permitted under the law.
A long history of attempts to patch this "loophole" follows, but the really curious thing is how this is advantageous in the first place. As far as I understand it's because the tax system was developed to tax wage income, and a system to tax investment income is kind of bolted on. With wage income it makes sense to tax it yearly and there's no concept of wage losses.
In addition to the problem mentioned in the OP, this would also solve taxation for buybacks.
I don’t know if offsetting non-capital income with capital losses should be allowed. My intuition says no, but who knows.
the reason its problematic is that just because a persons assets have risen, doesnt mean they want to sell, and if they dont sell, it means they need the liquid assets to cover said tax bill. a tax of this nature forces people to sell assets which is problematic. Its not problematic to say you sold X assets at profit Y, its your responsibility to retain percentage Z of that to pay the taxes.
They just defer taxation to a later year.
What tax harvesting moves like this get you is better compounding, and the result is, you pay more taxes (on more gains) later.
Watching the us government fire a $150k missile from a $170m fighter that costs $25k/hour to fly at a $250 balloon ticks me off. That’s my money. It was taken from me unwillingly and transferred to to some elite 1% senator’s golf Buddy.
Taxes are stupid and we need to move past them if we’re ever to advance as a civilization.
You would need to defend yourself so you need guns. But that would be useless against groups of people with guns so people will form groups that defend themselves. Eventuality some of those people will specialise and some people in the group pay others to defend the group in a form of a kind of “tithe” or regular payment to the common good.
https://www.etf.com/sections/features-and-news/vanguard-goin...
Now that said, I agree the benefits of direct indexing for the non-wealthy is vastly overstated and probably a mistake for most.
Close the "loophole" (not a loophole, it's just following the law as written) and it'll impact way more than just the wealthy.
You swap one security for another, almost identical one and take the capital loss.
> You cannot deduct losses from sales or trades of stock or securities in a wash sale unless the loss was incurred in the ordinary course of your business as a dealer in stock or securities.
Not in any meaningful sense. Only the ultra-wealthy can wipe out the lion's share of their tax bill through this loophole. From the article:
> Someone like Ballmer can easily deploy $100 million in losses to cancel out a $100 million gain from selling some of his vast Microsoft holdings. It’s a very different story when it comes to wages and other forms of income, of which only $3,000 can be offset. On average, only the top 0.001% of taxpayers made a majority of their income through investment gains in 2018, according to public IRS data.
But like you say you can only deduct $3000 of capital losses per year. Completely and entirely immaterial to a billionaire like Ballmer, but very valuable to someone in the middle class or lower.
Edit: I thought that limit is just for your ordinary income but there seems to be disagreement on this?
IRS laws say you can deduct $3000 ordinary income (i.e. income earned by working, so doesn't include capital gains) per year and deduct without limit against capital gains. Should your capital losses exceed your capital gains that year, you can carryforward the rest of the capital losses without limit onto the next year 2023, 2024, etc.
The whole point of the article is that "tax loss harvesting" beneficial to Steve Ballmer and the other billionaires mentioned in the article, because they have $Bs in capital gains to begin with (Steve Ballmer had highly appreciated MSFT stock as mentioned in the article). An average Joe like you and me even if we have that much capital losses would find it difficult to find the capital gains to deduct against, so we're typically limited to only $3000 per year deducting against ordinary income (compare against no limit for capital gains), which is much less useful tax shield compared to someone like Steve Ballmer who gets most of his income from capital gains, and who therefore can use his massive cap losses to shield against taxation much more effectively. This is the part that makes "Although this is also available to masses" somewhat moot. Even though it's "technically" possible, the masses don't have the massive capital gains to actually deduct against, so they don't benefit from this to nearly the same magnitude as someone who draws most of their income from capital appreciation.
Therefore, one could argue that this section of the tax code is "unfair" in year 2023. The article makes the case that wash sale rule was effective in the 1920s, but that in the 100 years that have passed, technology has made evading the wash sale rule trivial (especially for billionaires), so the rule as drafted in the 1900s is no longer effective at preventing what it intended.
And for somebody to whom $3k is a significant amount of money, fucking around on the stock market to engineer a $3k on-paper loss is quite out of reach.
https://turbotax.intuit.com/tax-tips/investments-and-taxes/g...
When used to offset other kinds of income, the $3k limit applies.
https://turbotax.intuit.com/tax-tips/investments-and-taxes/c...
Last year was a great time to do it. SP500 was down, but many tech stocks weren't (yet).
Sell your Vanguard ETF, use the loss to offset the tech stock you sold with huge gains. Buy back another ETF that is highly correlated with the SP500.
Net capital gains = $0 and you still hold the same SP500 position as before.
It looks like the majority of people who own stock own it in things like retirement accounts[1, Table 3.]. Tax-deferred retirement accounts apparently can't use this trick[2].
1 - https://wallethacks.com/stock-ownership-in-america/
2 - https://www.irs.gov/newsroom/what-if-my-401k-drops-in-value
But the rich wont vote for that!
What are property taxes? Effectively this but for a specific asset.
Granted they are not based in the rise in value. But the idea of paying tax for holding something is not new.
Taxing stock ownership is a tax on investing.
Once you die the estate settles the loans via the creditors just grabbing the collateral. I think it would never get taxed then no?
I suppose one thing nobody has mentioned is that deferral can also help you wait for a year when the rate of the top tax bracket is lowered? Maybe that's a significant component too?
For folks this wealthy, I doubt the difference in tax brackets make much of a difference. What's classified as income is probably such a small portion of what they get taxed on that it just doesn't matter.
And obviously the logic would be the same for if/when they change the long-term capital gains tax rates.
The middle class wouldn't vote for that either.
Years ago at a firm, I had a client they to convince us to do this for them. The partner told them they weren't paying us enough for him to risk the prison time.
And yes, if you get caught, you still pay penalties, and interest, and if the amount is large enough you can look forward to a taxpayer paid vacation to a minimum security federal penitentiary.
The entire article is about wash trading.
The thing about tax is that "strategies" like this which are clearly contrary to the intent of the law but which technically fall within the letter of the regulations can be made explicitly illegal after the fact, so the lack of prosecutions to date is not an indicator of their illegality. See the Bermuda loss harvesting scandal from the early 2010s.
Goldman's partners are simply banking on being able to place enough former employees in the regulatory agencies to get away with it this time. It didn't work for the Bermudan loss harvesting schemes and it probably won't work this time.