British student may be extradited to US on copyright charges
boingboing.net
boingboing.net
Next thing you know we're gonna be extradited to Britain for insulting the queen.
I realise that having such a stake is not required by the Treaty, but perhaps it should be?
The forum clause, which was passed by both Houses, would require such a stake, but it hasn't been implemented by either the last government or the current one, apparently because it breaks the treaty we signed with the US which led to the act in the first place. A shame, because it looks eminently sensible to me: http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/2003/41/section/83A
Since it's illegal in Britain also, would it not make more sense (and be way less sketchy) to prosecute the guy in Britain?
If it's not in the public interest to do it in the UK, why is it in the public interest to do it in the USA? It seems to me that the judge is contradicting the crown here, which seems a bit off, even if you assume it's his right to do so.
The judge, theoretically, is more of the expert on the law and whether it should be tried - but the CPS have to decide to bring the prosecution to him/her. Which is why you regularly get cases that should be seen in court, but which a suit decides is statistically unlikely to prosecute favourably.
Wouldn't that provide an avenue of relief to the copy right holders without removing a UK citizen from the jurisdiction of UK laws?
This whole thing seems troubling to me.
How many US Internet companies collect VAT from sales to folks in the UK? Would that make founders of a US startup subject to extradition to the UK for tax avoidance? What if it's just a tiny DBA "company" with no liability shield?
The whole thing smells rotten to me!
Unfortunately, there's no clause in the Extradition Act in power at the moment which allows a public interest defense, so it's not the job of the judge to decide such an issue. The forum clause (linked to a bit further down) would change this.
I don't support the concept of extradition (period, I think?), but there is a case to be made that the U.S. is aiming to protect its citizens (the media companies in this case) against wrongs.
The other country would simply be returning the person to the correct jurisdiction.
Note that even this is not clear-cut at all - many countries will refuse extradition even in this case if there is evidence that the person will face the death sentence or torture.
The USA simply doesn't have the right to prosecute crimes abroad, with no relation to the USA whatsoever - whether in defense of its citizenry or its corporations. That's what the whole concept of sovereignty is about!
1. You believe that copyright infringement is a "wrong" committed by one party on another party (the victim).
2. A British national commits copyright infringement where the victim is in the United States.
3. The United States conceivably has a moral right to seek punishment against that British national.
I mean, to say otherwise would be to say that copyright existed within a border. We have treaties explicitly so that isn't so - if there were a place in the world where copyright law didn't apply, you couldn't post things on the Internet and expect it to retain its copyright.
I don't support extradition in this case. Don't get me wrong. I don't believe in an absolute morality, and I'm not even sure I believe that intellectual property is a good idea on balance, but the moral argument can be made if you're willing to speak in more concrete terms (i.e., if you're willing to accept the premise that copyright infringement is a global "wrong")
However you expect you'll react though, it's well worth a read to get the whole story.
"In summary Mr Bridge contented that the prosecution of the defendants amounted to a breach of Article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights and Mr Overton's right to freedom of speech. He said that The Guardian newspaper had carried an article dated 24th February 2007 describing TV-Links in detail. TV-Links did no more than any other TV listings site or indeed The Guardian newspaper. TV-Links merely expressed the fact that films could be accessed on other host sites."
"It was argued that TV-Links was in a similar position to Google or YouTube in that all of the material could be accessed by persons who used TV-Links could also be accessed through their use of those sites as well. ... The essential difference between TV-Links and sites that directly provide pirated material in breach of copyright (it was not suggested that Google or YouTube fall into this category) is that those other sites store the illegal material and make it available to users of the site. TV-Links did not store any such material. It was simply a sign post pointing the way to where such material could be accessed by those members of the public who chose to do so."
"The prosecutor in this case, he said, had a cast iron case against the viewers of the material accessed by the use of the TV-Links site and against the broadcasters of that material. He did not however have a case against the middle man, namely the defendants and who had not made available this material. The defendants themselves were not making available the copyright material."
I don't believe that's an offence in the UK. (Thailand has a law like that). Remember Parliament in the UK can despose and appoint a new monarch, so I doubt they'd make it a crime to insult the monarch.
However in reality, parliament has all the power. The queen has no veto on laws, if they were to refuse to sign a law, they would have to resign (or there'd be a civil war). In theory the queen appoints the government and prime minister, but they must appoint the person who parliament has choose. In theory PM goes to the queen to dissolve parliament, but the queen cannot refuse. The monarch has mo power anymore is more of a formality.
Insulting of the Queen, called Lese-majesty, was only abolished in Scotland in 2010, it was prior to that a common law criminal offense, thought that last time it was ever prosecuted was in 1715.
ps. Also of note, offending the queen was the last step in the expulsion of Genesis P.Oridge (1980's?), when he and his cohorts mailed her their ejaculate.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marc_Emery
Long story short, the US gov't got him extradited and he's now serving a five year sentence in a US prison.
No doubt there are countless situations like this but I just remember being incredibly shocked (no doubt naively) that the RCMP would go and arrest the guy just because the US asked them to.
All of this is just wrong.
I'm not sure the point at which anti-China activities would fall under the purview of anti-terrorism laws, but I'm not sure the issue is as clean-cut as you think. A Chinese individual who sent money back home or canvassed for support might get nailed on quite a few grounds assuming the United States was willing to be consistent in applying its policies regarding Islamic terrorism to anti-China groups.
But I still think
> A Chinese individual who sent money back home or canvassed for support might get nailed on quite a few grounds assuming the United States was willing to be consistent in applying its policies regarding Islamic terrorism to anti-China groups.
seems a bit unlikely. Has it happened yet?
Tax payers should be breaking things over stuff like this.
But seriously, if he gets extradited, he still needs to be tried by a US court, where a judge may decide that this is all too crazy and drop the charges.
Best of all, everything (including the prison, which is pretty expensive) is paid by US taxpayers - who's the sucker now?
"[T]his sets a terrible precedent. If a UK citizen can be extradited to the US because of the content of their web pages hosted in the UK, why wouldn't US citizens be able to be extradited to Thailand on charges of disrespecting the king or to China for undermining the government by being critical of it? To even press this case at all shows either a fundamental undervaluing of the freedom of speech of everyone, including US citizens, or, more likely, a belief in the most fundamental of American hypocrisies: the idea that the rules that the US applies to the rest of the world shouldn't be applied to the US."
I hear dumping a ship-load of tea into a local harbor is a good way to make your point about this sort of thing.
This sounds like a clever point, but really isn't. Extradition requires that the crime is also a crime under the local laws. Which is why Swiss Bankers would never be extradited to the US for tax evasion, and why Americans would never be extradited to Thailand for making fun on the King.
I don't think copyright infringement should warrant extradition, but I don't have a good reason why I hold that belief.
The argument is being made (quite rightly I think) is that what he did was not illegal under British law.
So perhaps it is a good comparison :)
Edit:
I just skimmed the PDF, and the kid argued that he shouldn't be extradited for three reasons: 1) Not illegal in both countries 2) US copyright punishment is "unjust or oppressive" 3) An extradition would be "disproportionate" relative to the crime.
I agree with points #2 and #3, but not #1. I think #3 is the strongest argument. Copyright infringement is not a severe enough impediment to other's natural freedoms to merit sending a citizen to a foreign country to face charges.
If the judge decides it is then, fine, that's what he rules :)
I agree; #3 is the most compelling. If anything it's the same reason the CPS declined a UK prosecution (because to do so would be disproportionate).
We should perhaps also require that the likely punishment be comparable.
Dangerous precedent... You have to obey British and USA laws.
The ruling spends several pages discussing it, and the ruling concludes "Accordingly in my judgement I am satisfied the conduct alleged in the instant request meets the dual criminality test and would be an offence in this jurisdiction."
In other words, he only has to obey British law. The only reason the ruling was in favor of extradition was because the crime he committed is also a British law punishable by at least one year.
There's a saying that, if your dog must be shot, it is best to do it yourself. Farming it out makes the act worse, not better.
If a UK citizen is suspected of committing a crime in the UK, (s)he must be tried in the UK under UK law and, if found guilty, punished in the UK. The suspect should never, ever be extradited to a foreign power and punished by them.
The issue is being argued the same as if someone was selling pirated CDs in the US, and he was facilitating those people and making money doing so in the UK. Regardless of how you feel about the nature of digital copyright law, it's really not quite as ridiculous as you are making it sound.
It may be the case that he has also committed a crime in the US. If Britain feels that the crime he is supposed to have committed in the US is heinous enough in nature to extradite him, then the proper procedures should be followed of course. However, if the crime is not heinous enough to cause a prosecution of him in Britain, it is not heinous enough to extradite him to the US.
In Thailand, I believe it is illegal to insult the person of the King. If someone in the UK insults the Thai king on the internet in a racially-aggravated way (and funding the site via advertisements), but not heinously enough to cause a prosecution in the UK, should they be extradited to Thailand to face prosecution there? I'd argue that they shouldn't and that this fictitious case is almost identical in nature to the one under discussion.
Your allegory is flawed (I believe) as I cannot imagine how one could facilitate copyright violation for pirating CDs remotely, in a way that is merely speech and is illegal in the host country and would cause extradition to face prosecution. Can you fill that detail in for me?
(The idea that there is a crime of facilitating copyright violation is nauseating, by the way. That's similar to the UK's offence of possessing information that may be of use to a terrorist. In practice, almost anything can be outlawed that way; the law is so broad as to be useless for punishing any single offence and capable of punishing any offence.)
I wonder what would have happened had a smaller country made the same request.
It's honestly quite shameful.
http://www.gopetition.com/petitions/stop-extradition-fair-uk...
https://submissions.epetitions.direct.gov.uk/petitions/22467
And also congratulation to "great" Britain to once again confirm that it is nothing more than the US' lap dog. </rant>
But he's a British citizen in Britian. He's not subject to US laws, he's subject to British laws.
If the British government can't be bothered to protect its citizens against this kind of overreach, isn't the british government failing at the most basic purpose of a government-- to protect people's rights?
The idea that a .NET or .COM domain name subjects you to US laws is asinine beyond belief. The only degree to which this is true is domain disputes or the management of that domain name. Nothing else.
A big part of the problem here is that US judges have become errand boys for the federal government, and are inclined to let federal prosecutors get away with asinine arguments like the claim that ".COM means US presence.".
Especially since .com is supposed to be reserved for international use, whereas .us is intended for US-based (or US-targeted) companies.
Off the top of my head, I can only think of two companies that ever used .us: Delicious and Grouphug (and the former only because of the creative spelling).
Start here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extradition
Form arguments based on the restrictions outlined.
How does the original comment have anything to do with jurisdiction?