If the goal isn’t to editorialize on purpose, could one just write, “[young girl|virgin]” when faced with what the “correct” translation is supposed to be?
If the goal isn’t to editorialize on purpose, could one just write, “[young girl|virgin]” when faced with what the “correct” translation is supposed to be?
If we have complete gaps in our knowledge of the language, then there’s no room for anything but editorialization.
Luckily, there is room in the world for (and demand for) countless approaches to Biblical translation, from the hyper‐literal to the simple paraphrase.
Any person who’s participated in a group Bible study (except in those kooky KJV‐only cults) has experienced reading Bible passages out loud in a circle of people, each of whom happens to be quoting a different translation of the same text.
Does that sentence say that Smith is the best candidate? No, it says that Johnson thinks that.
Would it be better if it were reworded to “…were motivated by a desire to seat who he thought was the best candidate as President”? No, that would just be redundant.
Does the original sentence imply that Johnson holds an unbiased, objective opinion of Smith? Of course not. If anything, it implies the opposite!
That's certainly not true of reputable translations - you can easily verify this by just glancing at something widely available like e.g. an annotated version of the NIV - the scholarship and scrupulous attention to detail is evident.
Leaving a word untranslated (but transliterated into modern English orthography as best as possible), with footnotes explaining possible meanings is seemingly sensible enough but the Bible is meant to be the "word of God", and leaving it sprinkled with words that nobody's sure about the meaning of would tend to undermine its attempt to sound authoritative on matters spiritual.
It has no meaning and yet it seems to fit in a lot of places. It’s almost like a parity correction: we’re missing data here, just fill in the blank based on the context.