Inequality, interest rates, aging, and the role of central banks (2021)
theovershoot.co
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This would be remedied if newly created money was credited directly to people's accounts rather than given to banks to lend out.
Any practical allocation of new currency is going to be a misallocation, including a helicopter drop. The challenge governments have is inflating currency in a way such that it takes as long as possible to be fully reflected in the economy so that it is minimally disruptive. This turns out to be very tricky, precisely because it is virtually guaranteed to be a misallocation.
Whether it's desirable in theory depends on what the end goal is. If the end goal is less wealth inequality, a less efficient but more fair system might be more desirable than a more efficient one that systematically transfers wealth from currency holders to financial institutions.
If I pay someone to espouse the glories of ignorance, sow division and shill terrible policy online (not that many among us don't do it for free regardless) that work is of negative value to the broader economy despite having scant if any externality. But, that work is of positive value in the microeconomic sense hence why someone would get paid to do it. There are lots of niches like this in the economy.
See related: Broken windows fallacy and bullshit jobs.
Nature does not negotiate.
- Own you time! Don't sell your time.
- Sell your past, not your present/future.
- Only work with software. Hardware is done permanently.
- Lower the energy requirements until it hurts.
- Make permanent solutions.
- Stop moving faster than 20 km/h, if you do take a train.
- Live small, so you can heat it for less.
- If you are in debt: SELL!Instead of saying: > some people earn more money than others whilst providing less value; even negative value
It's more precise to say: > some entities (people, companies, ...) give money to some people whilst those people provide less value than others
This turns the passive language (receiving) into active language (giving) which requires a subject. Now immediately a question appears: why would the subject do that if they receive comparably little value?
In other words, this doesn't really have to do much with the monetary system at all. The same would be true without any money.
The central bank account would be safer than government bonds, meaning in a flight to safety interest rates on government debt would rise as money drained to the safer central bank account. Exactly the opposite of what you want when you may need government to act urgently and expansively to solve whatever problem has occurred and likely only the elected government has the authority to solve that problem.
This is commonly misunderstood. Central banks create interbank money that cannot be spent outside the financial system. The banks themselves create the new money by issuing loans. However, they issue these loans to the already rich, thereby exacerbating existing inequality.
There's a crucial distinction here to make, you are naming the correct effect, and it has the correct effect, but it happens somewhere different, so your proposed solutions would be adverse.
2. How Do Primary Dealers Make Money? Primary dealers buy bonds directly from the government and then resell them to clients and investors at a slight mark-up. This small difference in price is how primary dealers earn a profit. https://www.investopedia.com/terms/p/primarydealer.asp
[1] https://www.amazon.com/Central-Banking-101-Joseph-Wang/dp/09...
Can you spell out the adverse effects you see in the proposal to credit money directly to people's accounts? It seems like the money people spend would go to paying directly for consumables and to paying off loans and the money they don't spend would stay in the banking system, helping to meet capital requirements and supporting the banks' loans to the rich (and others.) It seems like the above situation might create inflation in consumables but it wouldn't create asset price inflation. And since the money is going directly to those most affected by inflation in consumables, there's a different but reasonable balance achieved. So, I can see that you see something I don't see. Can you give some examples?
The exceptional, pandemic-related stimulus money may have done something similar, but now I'm speculating. Of course, giving more money to people when consumables are inflating due to scarcity from a supply shock will only make the inflation worse, won't it? No matter whether you give money to wealthy people or everyone.
I'd agree that this is the case and argue that it is what has been happening since the aftermath of the ~2008 GFC. I'd further argue that this is one of the chief drivers of inequality as it drives up the price of housing for everyone without driving up everyone's ability to pay for housing by the same degree. To my eye, that is an adverse consequence. That it also drives up stock prices is mainly of interest to the relative few in the economy who own stocks. That an increasing share of flat-ish income is spent on housing rather than on, e.g., food, is an adverse effect of the strategy.
You're moving the goalposts to raise supply shock scarcity rather than something inherent to money for everyone rather than money for the already monied. I do agree that supply shocks are probably a factor these days. That said, there's only so much a given population is able to consume and making sure that they all have an equal chance at it seems more pertinent to maintaining stability than increasing the price of assets, where there is no inherent limit.
Also, proponents of the cantillon effect forget that people with money can do an inverse cantillon effect by withholding their money from the markets and then they can do a regular cantillon effect by putting their money on the market.
If we assume a positive return on capital aka a positive interest rate then inequality would rise simply because the wealthy have most of their consumption needs fulfilled already and then in the late stages of capitalism they would be the ones manipulating the cantillon effect because they act as a quasi central bank.
When a financial institution borrows from a central bank, the financial institution records an increase in financial obligations (a credit to Liabilities), along with a corresponding increase in cash & equivalents (a credit to Assets). All of this is in the bank's balance sheet, easily verifiable (e.g., by reading annual reports).
What you're suggesting (somehow getting central banks to lend newly created money to individuals even if they don't ask for it) makes no sense.
And it's clear through this lens that if the Fed's goal was actually to have a stable currency, they would grow the money supply through this method. Under a helicopter money scenario, the intended inflation/counter-deflation would happen nearly instantly, they could get the exact amount required, and we would move on with our lives.
Right now we have lagging indicators for lagging indicators that are lagged through the Cantillion effect. Of course it's an absolute impossibility to get it correct! No wonder we get booms and busts!
Deflation is bad, it causes rent-seeking through hoarding money. But inflation is bad, it causes rent-seeking through hoarding assets. The goal needs to be against rent-seeking, against zero sum behavior. The only way to accomplish that is steady prices.
Inequality, Interest Rates, Aging, and the Role of Central Banks - https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=28379178 - Sept 2021 (182 comments)
This model is communicated at large in various forms, "meritocracy", "you can do anything if you put your mind to it", "inalienable rights of life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness", "every life is sacred" and so on. It's such a common model, it seems unsurprising that many people balk at a need for explanation. It's like asking 'explain from first principles why 2+2=4'.
And yes when the available resources are below the saturation point, more analysis will be necessary to determine what's optimal. A more advanced model would account for a variety of qualities, each with different importance and different Ks, suggest distributions for those and relate them to total available resources. My intuition, based on 'lots of distributions end up being gaussian' is that equality is maximal except when significantly resource constrained (ie some state like war or famine), or k for some particularly important quality is extremely high (which interestingly is another common narrative: Noah's Ark, the Manhattan Project, Armageddon, The Martian.)
Obviously aiming for absolute equality would probably be more harmful. But there are plenty of arguments on why excessively high inequality is bad for the society as a whole. If you never bothered to read them and resort to silly conjectures like: "well, it's wrong because people kept saying so since I was young, duh!". Well...
It's not self-evident, as there are plenty of counter-arguments, including the Chinese Empire, the Egyptian Empire, the British Empire, the Caste System in India (going strong for over 3 millennia), and so on. Most of human history has been a period of extreme inequality. All you've got is a handful of revolutions in the last 500 years?
You actually need to make a moral argument. For example, slavery is bad not because it caused the the Civil War, but because it's morally wrong (and there's plenty of arguments here). I've also yet to see a very crystalized train of thought as to why inequality (maybe even extreme inequality) is morally wrong.
Assume civilization has the perfect capacity and amount of resources to meet the basic needs (however that's defined) of all people.
Inequality here might be worse than a different civilization where we are in extreme abundance.
If one person has 99% of wealth and everyone else shares 1% - but that is still enough for everyone to have a good life - then it probably matters much less than the same amount of inequality when there's just enough resources.
So I think the amount of resources and the level of inequality matter - not just inequality in general.
Additionally, it matters what the people with most of the wealth are doing. If they're spending it mostly on orgies - that's probably not great. If they're spending it on making advances that we wouldn't otherwise invest in if things were equal - then I'd argue that's good.
All of this is going to be highly subjective based on what you think is basic needs and a good life and how much envy you have.
Yep, I think I agree with this, although I've often seen stuff like "Elon Musk/Jeff Bezos/Mark Zuckerberg shouldn't have that much money. No one should."
So I think the typical anti-inequality argument has a much stronger conclusion.
Or perhaps I'm incorrectly inferring from your use of the word "crystalized" that you're looking for near undefeatable resiliency.
Yes. All of those were indeed miserable places to be if you were poor or did not have right skin color etc. I agree.
> You actually need to make a moral argument. For example, slavery is bad not because it caused the the Civil War, but because it's morally wrong (and there's plenty of arguments here)
No necessarily. I'd prefer to make an utilitarian argument. Over long periods of time high inequality leads to inefficiency due to wealth accumulation across different generations.
I could try and make more arguments, but I'll let you have a go this time..
Rare to find sound argument does not equal absence of argument.
I’m not sure what a first principles case would be here, but I guess it would need to start with an agreement about what a person is and what a society is, and the interaction between those two. Difficult as these are not agreed upon, even in the west.
On a relatively orthodox view on these points, your argument might be that beyond a given level of inequality, there are diminishing marginal returns to even the beneficiaries of the inequality. Tinbergen, a relatively well-known economist, thought this was around 5x disparity in income (ignore assets). You might argue about the precise figure, but having lived in places where there is high inequality, the crime rate put a serious cap on my perceived quality of life.
Extreme inequality is dangerous because the few wealthiest people concentrate enough power to overpower the mechanisms that keep the society stable and working. If you can bribe your way out of problems with law, or force the hand of the government by lobbying or menacing, you can break the society, while also acquiring even more wealth. If not stopped, the process leads to a dictatorship at the mildest, or a downfall at the most extreme.
But it just ends in arguing that choices can be made about income inequality and "Let's get to work". What is the work, precisely? [Asking genuinely. I'm not a wealthy person who can buy a politician or give poison money to an academic institution to teach my philosophy. I don't know what the essay wants from me.]
I like that they didn't propose policies, as that brings in personal opinions.
The clear implication is “policies that address inequality.”
(Unfortunately, the only example the article gives is the wartime mobilization [0] that corresponded with the end of the Great Depression, which implies that the solution is to mobilize and launch a massive global conventional war, which seems both impractical and likely to have undesirable direct and indirect effects that would outweigh any salutary effects on the domestic distribution of income and wealth.)
[0] And unfortunately fails to point to a variety of anti-inequality domestic economic policies that were adopted within the US under the political cover of the war, which would–though definitely controversial–be a much more interesting discussion point than “wartime mobilization”.
(Every 7 years in the Torah, Babylon did it at the discretion of the king, etc.)
Care to speak a little more about those? My impression was that FDR's focus shifted drastically away from New Deal policy-making upon the US's entry into the combat.
This doesn’t make sense in any money system. For commodity money, the supply is set by mining. For fiat, by a Treasury.
How does it not make sense?
In the era of free banking in the US, banks issued their own currency.
I mean exactly that. They issued banknotes (that's why paper money is sometimes called banknotes). The banknotes were denoted in dollars, like bank checks today.
Here's an article with some pictures:
https://thismatter.com/money/banking/history/free-banking-na...
As I recall, they issued the paper version of stablecoins: they were denominated in units of US dollars, but they weren’t government money, and they traded at floating values, typically (aside from many other factors influencing value) declining in value with distance from the issuing bank.
When the Fed lost all credibility with exchanging their banknotes for gold, we had the Great Depression. FDR then defaulted on the gold bonds, basically stealing from the good citizens who had trusted the government.
This was not a cause of the Great Depression. (You are correct on the default, however.)
The free banking era illustrates the problem. Rates are endogenous to the money supply. That circularity promotes a hyper-volatile credit cycle. There is no natural counter-balance we’ve discovered to that tendency. (Apart from ruinous boom-and-bust cycles.)
So there is no market for the interest rate of money that can be created.
If you have a fixed money supply then the interest rate isn't set by supply and demand of funds either but by liquidity preference. As the interest rate falls below liquidity preference people will simply hold cash or keep their money in checking accounts. The interest available for borrowing does not fall all the way to zero. It gets stuck at some positive value. This money is "saved" in the sense of deferred spending but it is not "saved" in the sense that it is not lent out and only available in the future once the loan is repaid, no, it is available today to spend.
The difference between classical and Keynesian economics is effectively that in the former you only have saving and consumption but in Keynesian economics you also have a third state "cash" (including bank account deposits) that is a hybrid of the two. It is neither consumption nor classical saving and this is what's the setting of the interest rate in the open market.
Dieter Suhr effectively argues that this liquidity premium is the effect of money being a social network. Just like Facebook extracting profits from your data, people with cash/deposits benefit from the network effects of money and can sell these network effects for money keeping the interest rate high and if they can't sell them they will try to benefit from them directly (e.g. speculation) as that is more profitable than lending money. Businesses and consumers are the ones creating the network effect so they should be compensated and not the idle who do nothing with their money.
No. In Friedman's "Monetary History of the United States" he shows how the Fed setting interest rates was rather erratic and much more unstable than the earlier free market mechanism. The Fed would guess at what the S+D point was, since the Fed was not subject to market forces. This meant they were always late and always wrong.
The supply of gold varied, by quite a bit. See the various gold rushes and the resulting inflation/deflation.
I am quite certain they have an accurate high level understanding of the relationship between their supply, interest rates and inflation.
I would also like to point out that there are different types of interest rates. I am not sure what rates you suggest would be set by S&D.
Free market banking is banking in which any bank can issue money. The "supply" they were referring to is supply in the economic sense of supply and demand, i.e. the equilibrium market price of money/debt that would arise from the supply and demand of market participants.
If one farm had a legal monopoly on selling apples, them yes technically they are "supplying" them, but the price is not what the natural price of apples would be in a competitive market absent any legislatively granted monopolies.
This should help as an introduction:
https://thismatter.com/money/banking/history/free-banking-na...
Any bank could go rogue and lend money below central bank/base rate, but because all other banks can "earn" free money at the central bank at base rate this opportunity would instantly be arbitraged away.
Likewise market forces for borrowing are determined by the risk premium on top of base rate, with competition for borrowers arbitraging away opportunities for risk takers (lenders).
Investing in stocks does provide jobs and income to others. When you buy stocks, the money goes to finance the business.
When you buy art, the money goes to the artist.
And so on.
Consider if an artists creates a painting, and sells it to a rich dude for $100,000. Who is harmed by this? I don't understand all the "inequality is bad" axioms that people seem to accept uncritically.
Consider a house, the builder sells it once, but it gets bought and sold on average every 7 years subsequently.
There's an entire industry of artists making art to sell to the Richie Riches and Willy Wealthies of the world, and this has been going on since antiquity. Why do you think all that medieval Italian art was created? It was rich Italians patronizing the artists.
The same with real estate. In the meantime, while someone owns a house, they gotta pay others for insurance, repairs, maintenance, taxes, etc. Even buying the house will cost you 6% going to the starving real estate agent. Owning a house is very expensive, not counting the purchase price.
Meanwhile, the people spending all that money are the same people setting things up to ensure that surplus flows back to... themselves. So the wealthy people spend money, the people who manufacture their stuff and provide their services get as little surplus as possible without inciting them to riot, and the remainder goes right back to some other wealthy person, and then the process repeats.
There's no guarantee that surplus/welfare/utility flows along with the money, and it should be obvious to any observer that it definitely does not in practice.
The tired old argument that wealth accumulation doesn't really exist because the money all eventually goes "back into the economy" has always been an insulting hand-wave that is neither a principled model nor in agreement with basic facts about the economy.
The government, on the other hand, gets money by taking it.
Its missing, because it is mostly not true.
The wealthy predominantly get wealthy by getting other people to create wealth, and taking it from them via contracts relying on imbalances of power and econonic coercion (in a fairly benign modern capitalist system; is less benign, less modern, emerging (or pre-) capitalist systems, the coercion is often jist direct threat or application of force rather than the economic coercion of the inherent precariousness of the working class in capitalist society.
Everybody in a business is creating the wealth of the business, and they get their share of the created wealth in the form of pay and benefits. Unsurprisingly, their compensation is in proportion to the value they add (i.e. the wealth their contributions create).
It is not a system based on forcing anyone. The cooperation is voluntary, with their compensation set by supply+demand.
Power imbalance does not make for informed consent.
But they aren't. Only 1.5% work for minimum wage.
1/100 and 1/1000 is different, but the difference isn't that big.
Your overall point didn't make any sense though. "Lots of people don't earn minimum wage" doesn't mean that there isn't any power balance.
There is no power imbalance. If a worker produces a lot more value than he costs, he simply goes to another company that bids higher for him.
People who don’t work for minimum wage are still facing the same basic constraint.
That's clearly not true. It's just ussually very hard to quantify how much wealth every individual is creating and it becomes even harder as you go up the chain of hierarchy.
> Unsurprisingly, their compensation is in proportion to the value they add
Well... that's a strong statement and generally incorrect, at best their compensation if bounded by the value they add (not that it's easy to measure in most roles). Supply+demand (as you said) is what determines compensation in 95%+ of all cases.
Supply+Demand certainly does determine employee compensation. But consider that there is no demand for workers who would cost more than the value they add. If the worker was producing far more value than he was paid, then the worker will be enticed away by some other business offering him more money.
So, you can see how S+D nudges employee compensation towards being paid according to what value they produce.
In general yes. But as as some of the venture capital funded growth companies have shown us in recent years these values can stay detached for quite a while.
But yeah over longterm I'd you to be mostly right.
Wealthy people accumulate wealth by many means. Creating wealth is only one of those means. Nor is wealth creation incompatible with the model I described.
> The government, on the other hand, gets money by taking it.
Who said anything about the government?
But if you want to argue that point, the government may create wealth just like any private individual or enterprise. In fact, it does create quite a lot of wealth, in the form of public services and overcoming various incentive problems of private industry operating in free markets.
Of course, governments do levy taxes in order to fund their activities. But you can't seriously argue that tax revenue is "taken" from the economy and also argue that wealth accumulation does not exist because wealthy individuals' money is not "taken" from the economy.
These don't apply to all big ticket items, but since you mentioned houses, I thought I'd flesh out the picture on who benefits from buying/selling activity.
It's worth noting that all of these people get paid, regardless of whether the home seller made money or lost money on the home (or how much). So in a strong market, they will get a small share of the gains. But in a down market, the seller may make nothing, while these service providers all get paid.
Only if you’re buying directly from the business, which you’re usually not. Usually you’re just buying from another shareholder (could be another individual, a mutual fund, a hedge fund, whatever).
The proceeds may indeed end up filtering into the rest of the economy (I may sell you the stock to pay my mortgage, the hedge fund pays their traders), but the money doesn’t fund the business of the traded company.
> the money doesn’t fund the business of the traded company.
Not directly, but indirectly it does. It makes the stocks valuable so the company can create shares and people will buy them. You know, like those stock options employees get.
Sure, but that’s still a small fraction of most trades most of the time. When companies sell stock (long after their IPO) the sales kind of have to be dripped out as a small percentage of the trading volume of the stock or it would negatively affect the price (more than considered acceptable). If a company or its insiders are most of the sellers by volume (again, if a company has been public a while), that’s a bad sign for the company.
> Not directly, but indirectly it does.
Also yes, but I would quibble that this is moving the goal posts from your original statement :). “The money goes to finance the business” seemed like a pretty direct declarative statement that didn’t touch on the nuance of “buying stock -> pushes price up -> makes debt cheaper for company/makes further stock sales attractive”.
I get the point you’re making and don’t entirely disagree. But in a proud HN tradition it read as a confident and straightforward declaration that describes the (IMHO) minority case, but not the more common case and sweeps important nuance aside.
Please don’t take that to mean I thought your thoughts or understanding were also lacking in nuance, I didn’t. But I figure there will always be people coming through these threads who don’t know the nuance, they’ll read the highly upvoted top comments and move on, thinking they’ve improved their understanding, and they will be led astray, so I was responding to the words as-written.
BTW, understanding how and why free markets work is not very intuitive. It took a long time for me to understand it, and long conversations with my dad who had a PhD in economics. About 98% of what lay people implicitly believe about economics is intuitively obvious, but quite wrong.
The old hoary "rich people hoard money" is one of those tropes.
could somebody expand on this please? as far as I understood it, companies like Apple don’t issue shares very often. How does the share price going up go to their business unless they issue more shares (diluting existing shareholders)?
However, with Apple and similar companies - they buyback A LOT more of the stock than they issue in SBC.
This is a similar phenomena as the stock market. "Why does the stock market exist" is an interesting question. The textbook answer would be: it allows companies to sell pieces of themselves to the public in order to raise capital. The caveat to this answer is, 99.99...9% of transactions on the stock market every day do not land money back in the company's checking account; the money lands with the person who owned the stock previously. Because of Federal Reserve Guaranteed Inflation, that person probably, usually, over long enough periods of time, paid less for it than the current buyer, and five million exchanges down the chain for this physical stock certificate is the company, during their IPO (or when they release more stock), who made just a bit of money.
There's nothing intrinsically negative in what I described above; its just "markets". In fact, here's the counter-argument to the point the article makes about it being negative: Why would I, as an Investor, purchase a slice of the pizza delivery app Sliceline at IPO if I cannot make a return on that investment? Framework, the company making fully upgradeable and repairable laptops, needs funding; why would I invest in them if not to see a return on investment? I'm a homeowner; maybe I shouldn't purchase a painting from a struggling local artist; after all, it probably won't see a return on investment.
I intentionally slid down the slope of examples there to prove a point. Imagine you Have Money; maybe a lot of money, let's call it N dollars. How you spend that N dollars communicates your morals, ethics, and values; it defines what your future looks like, and at large enough values of N, progressively starts defining what the future of our society looks like.
A recent tweet, which I haven't found but you can search for, paraphrased: "In ten years, my husband's salary has increased 90%, while mine has increased 18%. I've spent most of that time curing cancer; he's been optimizing ad click rates."
What we're talking about is a phenomena I'd label as The Assetization of Everything. The vast majority of the monetary expenses wealthy individuals and corporations make is viewed through the lens of return on investment. Its very rare to see a corporation, or even wealthy individuals, say "we believe in X, we believe X is good for our society, so we are giving X $10M". "Investors" would ask: Wait, are you getting stock? Is it a loan? Can you write it down on your taxes? What's going on? Yet, anyone is totally able to do this. Its not because of some law, though corporate fiduciary duty isn't helping. Federal Reserve policy did accelerate it, but its not the cause. The cause is Cultural. It can't be fixed.
We, the world, are approaching the endgame of this very quickly. It won't be pretty. We are not allocating even adjacent orders of magnitudes enough resources toward solving problems that represent existential threats to, at minimum, our way of life; maybe society as we know it; possibly civilization; unlikely, but, the human race. Its not going to start with any of the traditional culprits though; AI, global warming, killer virus, whatever. It'll start with something that seems rather inane: it'll get harder and harder to find investments which generate returns. Put another way: deflation; we had an era of ridiculous prosperity where we could have allocated resources to stave off the coming actual crisis, but we didn't, and now no one wants to invest in solving them.
In the stock example, companies are also wealthy entities that hold cash when interest rates are cheap. For example, in 2017 (when rate targets were just above 0%) Apple had hundreds of billions in cash in Ireland and other tax haven nations. When Abenomics began in Japan and the Bank of Japan introduced zero interest rates and quantitative easing and yield curve control, one of the first things that happened was that companies started building huge money stores. When inflation remains stubbornly low, there isn't a strong need to get rid of your cash because it isn't losing a lot of value and you take little risk. You may as well hold on to it.
You're right that these economic activities are better than nothing but they aren't the kinds of activities that puts a generation of people to work and start building the kind of wealth that supports a family.
> companies started building huge money stores.
They don't have Scrooge McDuck cash vaults, either. Their money "store" is all invested.
> You may as well hold on to it.
Even if the money is deposited in a bank, it doesn't stay in the bank. The bank loans it out. That's how banks make money. You deposit money, they loan it out to someone who pays them interest.
Not really, they'd rather buy treasuries and deposit at the FED for a risk-free 4-5% return and it shows in FRED data; roughly $2.5 Trillion dollars are currently held at just Fed's overnight repo facility. In return when banks do want to lend it out, poor people (often with bad or average credit) get ludicrous interest rates like 15-25%.
If neutral rates were higher then people with cash who want to invest would be more incentivized to buy a bond instead of a stock. But because the rate is higher the issuing company has to make at least that percentage to break even let alone make a profit. So they will need to make more widgets, which means they have to hire more people.
The down side of course is that rates are so high that companies can’t make enough money to pay back debt holders so they default and fail and have to fire everyone.
70% of the money supply in Germany is literally sitting in checking accounts. If people actually saved money by lending it via certificate of deposits according to classical economics then this number would be much lower.
>They don't have Scrooge McDuck cash vaults, either. Their money "store" is all invested.
The parent said cash hoarder to cash hoarder and that is true when you buy stocks or art and neither consume the newly obtained money nor lend it out.
>Even if the money is deposited in a bank, it doesn't stay in the bank. The bank loans it out. That's how banks make money. You deposit money, they loan it out to someone who pays them interest.
As I said above, the money isn't lent out, new money is created with loans and the money that is being created is also kept in checking accounts so nobody is bringing their money to the bank in the way you imply. Money in checking accounts is essentially dead money. It is like the money in Scrooge McDuck's vault.
https://www.bankofengland.co.uk/-/media/boe/files/quarterly-...
What is more often considered bad is "inequity", which is what prevents a lot of people from earning a good, decent life. Some people work very hard in life and don't make any major bad decisions, and still have a hard life. Other people work little and have a good life. There's both inequality and inequity in this picture, but they're not the same thing.
What people object to is not mere inequality: inequality is expected to exist anywhere money exists. What people object to is "excessive inequality", or distributions of wealth where the Pareto coefficient is "too extreme". The reason why this is bad is because it effectively makes the "American dream" impossible for nearly everyone, in the extreme case.
Meaning not part of the intellectual elite, the sector of society that provides ideological guidance and justification for the system and its rulers.