By extension, it could be eliminated in a single generated given total control of the socialisation and schooling process.
This is not a meme or a rare view - Steven Pinker wrote a book countering this worldview 20 years ago.
The only way the above is logical is if there are no inherent differences between men and women. Otherwise, we have no way of determining how much disparity is from inherent factors and how much is from environmental. Put another way: if you believe female (or any race) under representation is caused by discrimination you should be able to define the correct level of representation if there was no discrimination (I have yet to see this number defined in any instance, which is concerning because there’s no way to measure impact or progress).
Given that we’re broadly implementing much policies is strong evidence that many believe there are no inherent differences.
It usually takes the form of insisting that underrepresentation of women in $profession is proof of discrimination and/or a hostile environment.
It’s saying these differences are connected to sex, but it’s not saying they’re not connected gender. Didn’t the article say that research hasn’t been done?
It would be interesting to see whether these differences were more or less correlated with gender rather than sex.
It would also be interesting to see what differences there are between trans and cis men/women, and whether/how these change as a trans person transitions.
We have hundreds of years of claimed differences which today sound a bit silly.