> launder ill-gotten wealth
Explain how this works?
The Saudi Sovereign Wealth Fund has a bunch of oil money. It's known to be an oppressive regime. It buys a bunch of Uber stock with that money, and its name is now in the cap table.
Everyone saw every transaction. Its name is still clearly there.
It also doesn't need to turn, say, drug money into carwash profits, to avoid suspicion from tax agencies, because it is the tax agency; it's sovereign.
And even if I'm not the Saudi Sovereign Wealth Fund, but a private individual, and I want to launder money, I don't see how buying Uber shares helps me do that, because I will still need to have gotten the cash from somewhere, and buying shares creates no pretext for where that cash might have come from.
Unless there's a wash trade thing going on? Where legitimate actor A buys shares to keep the price up, while illegitimate secret ally B sells shares, in order to transfer wealth from one to the other?
I don't think that's what you're saying though.
So what, really, do you mean?
Honestly I'm assuming this is just one of those rhetorical things that we say but haven't really thought about. But if there's meat there, I'd like to know.