Is there a function f: R -> R such that for all real x1, x2 and y where x1 < x2, there exists an x where x1 < x < x2 and f(x) = y ?
I was hoping it might at least point me in the right direction but, although it always attempts a proof, most of its answers contain something trivially incorrect like "A set cannot be infinite, therefore..."
That said, it did give me a reasonable proof that such a function can't exist if it has to be continuous, because of a thing called the intermediate value theorem, which I hadn't heard of before. But when I asked about noncontinuous functions, it went back to bullshitting.
(If anyone here does know the answer, I'd love to hear it!)