"it applies to any entity (any person, business, or organization) that collects or processes personal data from any person in the European Union"
It should
It should
I see that site makes the same assertions about jurisdiction that the comments here are making. However, it provides no explanation for why the EU can actually claim that jurisdiction, which is my whole point. Why are they obligated? How does the EU have such authority?
I say it doesn’t, for the simple reason given upthread, and you have provided no evidence to the contrary.
Personally, I still view GDPR more akin to regulatory capture than actual consumer protections; although, I do admit, more than anything, the Internet needs more consumer protection.