This doesn’t make sense. Consider two scenarios: company ABC sells only in the USA and Company XYZ is otherwise identical but also sells to Asia.

You are implying that because XYZ has lower profit as a percentage yet higher profit as a nominal dollar amount, that XYZ will charge its American patients more. My intuition says both ABC and XYZ will charge Americans the same, namely the highest amount it possibly can under market/regulatory/PR/competitive considerations.