Physical Warp Drives (2021)
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The best shot I think we have at metric engineering - unless you want to build something crazy like moving spheres and rings of ultra dense matter - is to look into materials with interesting spin-gravity coupling.
We know that rotating bodies have additional gravitational interactions. The effect is tiny, but measurable in experiments (e.g. Gravity Probe B). We also know that atomic spin is not just an abstract quantum number but actual angular momentum. So there should be some kind of spin-gravity interaction, even though it would be incredibly weak. But even though the absolute force is small, if we manage to make it time dependent we could amplify the effect. Just like a changing magetic field creates an electric field, a changing "gravitomagnetic" field would create a gravitational field. This is basically the insight that took us from compasses and static electricity to the whole of electrical engineering.
I am not sure such materials could even exist. And even though I have a PhD in Physics, I have no idea how one would approach this theoretically. The treatment of particle spin seems to be very rare in GR, and then you would have to marry this to solid state physics and somehow calculate how the situation changes when the spin density changes and so on... The furthest I got was to open a thread on stackexchange about it :-) but who knows, maybe someday somebody looks into this stuff:
https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/46099/materials-...
I really wish I understood this better, but the sense I've gotten is that intrinsic spin needs to couple to gravitation through torsion rather than through the usual curvature we study in GR. Most GR courses and textbooks barely mention torsion at all: IIRC Wald for example specifies "torsion free" as a condition on derivative operators and basically doesn't ever explore the alternative (I think there's a homework problem on it). The torsion free condition is what guarantees that Christoffel symbols are symmetric in their lower indices. Once upon a time while trying to understand all this back in grad school, I wrote up a set of notes extending Wald's calculations of curvature to include the possibility of torsion. I never tried to publish them anywhere, since of course it's nothing new or groundbreaking, but they're on my website here: http://www.slimy.com/~steuard/teaching/tutorials/GRtorsion.p...
Those notes do not discuss the connection to spin, because I was only halfway aware of it at the time and because I didn't have the time to delve into it enough to figure it out. (I also didn't know at the time that this is often called "Einstein-Cartan theory".) One notable thing about torsion is that it's a non-propagating field: as I recall, it's only non-zero inside the material with spin. I'm not entirely sure what the effects of all that might be. This 1976 review article has been lurking at the back of my to-read pile for ages: https://journals.aps.org/rmp/abstract/10.1103/RevModPhys.48....
I have no idea whatsoever whether any of that is useful for making warp drives or for metric engineering. But I figured I'd share, since it seemed relevant.
I guess I'm asking why you'd expect there to be an analog to the interaction between electrical and magnetic fields, when the nature of the thing is so different?
Indeed, if gravity were not described by a QFT at low energies, we would need an extremely convoluted explanation for why quantum effects aren’t always destroyed by the mere existence of gravity. In short, gravitons are the Occam’s razor solution, not having gravitons would be extremely hard to reconcile with the existence of gravity at any scale, and when you dive into the math you see why.
In any case, none of that directly answers your question about gravitoelectromagnetism, which actually is just a way to rewrite the Einstein equations in a particular way that’s valid only sometimes. And that could only be unphysical if Einstein’s equations are unphysical in the same regime. There’s no regime we’ve tested in where the Einstein equations aren’t empirically valid, and they do come naturally as the classical limit of the gravitational QFT (the limit implies there can be small corrections of a particular form, however).
No, it's a real effect and has been measured.
> the equations look similar, but there's no physical justification
Yes, there is; the justification is classical, not quantum, and does not depend on having any quantum theory of gravity. GR is a classical theory, and gravitomagnetism is present in it, similar to the way ordinary magnetism is present in classical electrodynamics. The difference is that electrodynamics is based on a vector field (the 4-potential) while GR is based on a tensor field (the metric); but that difference just changes some particular numerical coefficients in the equations for gravitomagnetism as compared to ordinary magnetism (for example, the gravity analogue to the Lorentz force has a factor of 4 in front of the v x B term). But these are classical fields, not quantum fields.
That's because nobody knows how to do that, and statements in papers like these that claim it can be done are basically hand-waving.
Quantum spin is relevant in post-Newtonian (GR-compatible) gravitation, though.
Rough argument: let's represent perturbations of the metric (gravitational waves) as a massless spin-2 boson field on top of some sourceless background geometry; this is essentially the programme of perturbative quantum gravity. (’t Hooft, <https://dspace.library.uu.nl/bitstream/1874/4708/2/16331.pdf> corresponding to DOI10.1142/9789812796653 (_0007).) This is almost General Relativity. GR's "no prior geometry" (MTW §17.6) axiom puts paid to the idea of obtaining a compatible theory by inserting some force into a static background, and ultimately this idea that spacetime is dynamic is what causes PQG to be a poor theory for strong gravitational interactions ('t Hooft ut supra, 2nd paragraph of §4).
Spin-2 interactions are attractive for the same charge. As far as we know, physicality demands PQG treat everything (including the gravitons) in the universe as possessing the same sign of gravitational charge. We can't (quasi-)neutralize with matter or vast collections of gravitons, so we can't charge screen in the sense of <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electric-field_screening> as opposed to having things like Lagrange points in Newtonian gravitation.
There is a family of theoretical approaches involves appreciable amounts of matter with opposite gravitational charges from everything else or introducing two "opposite" metrics and coupling most matter to our familiar one and a minority of matter to the other. Informally, we make gravitational and inertial masses unequal for some matter, breaking the weak equivalence principle (unlike in my first paragraph). Evidence takes us away from these approaches.
Additionally, opposite rank-2 tensor charges repel, so it's hard to imagine engineering up a scheme that uses any "anti-gravitating" matter with a single metric tensor, and theoreticians would have to imagine some cutoff to prevent runaway acceleration of an anti-gravitating particle let loose inside the solar system; Bondi, 1957, <https://doi.org/10.1103/RevModPhys.29.423>
One sketch of this sort of idea off the top of my head is Hossenfelder's "Antigravitation", <https://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0508013>, which is per the author a toy idea (each Standard Model particle has a gravitational-anti particle) that makes a simplifying assumption that takes one away from general curved spacetimes (ibid., §4 and the para below eq. 17, which is suggestive of Bondi's runaway).
Instead, we might try to contrive a universe with a complement of fun things like pp-waves (which maybe one can get with your spheres and rings). It's unlikely that this can be done without going outside the limits of linearized gravity (GEM and so forth), and such exotic things tend to cause gravitational collapses. (E.g. Bondi & Pirani XIII <https://royalsocietypublishing.org/doi/10.1098/rspa.1989.001...> aka <https://doi.org/10.1098/rspa.1989.0016> which is on scy hob if you need that) Because of B&P, it occurs to me that if we have a line of galaxies in an expanding Robertson-Walker spacetime, perturbing that with a caustic wave might keep (the remnants of) the galaxies from exiting each others' Hubble volumes, which maybe you can sort of think of as effective FTL, or perhaps related to the "FTL" of the most distant galaxies disappearing from view).
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Universality of free fall / Galilean gravity treat: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Apollo_15_feather_and_ham...
Would be cool if it happened during my lifetime though.
This is awesome. Ever since I read about the Alcubierre paper and it’s followups it seemed obvious to me that while there are huge basic physicality issues with FTL those same issues don’t exist for a near or at light speed warp drive.
Such a drive would not necessarily reduce the energy requirements of travel near light speed, but I wonder if it would eliminate some of the other huge problems. Things like a single dust particle annihilating you or blue shift turning all incident radiation into a gamma ray laser aimed at the front of your ship.
Would it have any impact on time dilation? If you approach the speed of light conventionally you can experience the trip subjectively as near instantaneous due to time dilation. Is that still true if you are in a warp bubble?
Light speed gets you to the centauri system in about 4.5 years Earth time. With time dilation the main cruise phase of the flight would seem instantaneous on board the spacecraft. (It would be years on Earth of course.)
Oh? But if there is no ether, and no absolute dead reckoning for motion in the vacuum, then for all we know, the Earth system is moving at 0.8c in one direction and the spacecraft would be moving at 0.2c in the opposite direction.
Or something like that.
Creating the warp-bubble clearly takes energy dependent only on its volume, not the mass contained therein.
Here, with a subluminal warp drive, you could hoist matter out of a gravity well and let it fall down afterwards.
No, you can't. That would violate local energy conservation.
The fact that energy conservation is a local property just means that there is no well-defined global energy in a general spacetime (though there is one in some special classes of spacetimes). It does not mean that stress-energy can be created or destroyed.
> with a subluminal warp drive, you could hoist matter out of a gravity well and let it fall down afterwards.
But the hoisting process would require you to expend at least as much energy as you would be able to collect from the falling down afterwards.
1 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flood_(Baxter_novel)
> In this case negative energy is not required — rather it’s gravity itself which bends spacetime and gives rise to time dilation. In essence the gravitational field makes the passage of time within the passenger area much slower than the passage of time outside of it. A few minutes for them may be thousands of years worth of space travel, yet to leverage this powerful effect would take enormous amounts of gravity. The paper calls for the compression of an entire planet down to just a thin shell surrounding the passengers. The introduction of a physical warp drive model has changed the question from “Does something like negative energy even exist?” to “How do we compress the mass of a planet down to the size of a spaceship?”
And I'll pull out the most apropos sentence:
> The paper calls for the compression of an entire planet down to just a thin shell surrounding the passengers
Yes, no negative energy or negative energy mass, just an entire planet compressed into a thin shell that somehow doesn't further collapse.
So even if this were possible, how would you accelerate or maneuver such a massive object?
I've seen so many of these proposals over the years. It's all nuclear-grade hopium with a massive flaw or huge, highly theoretical unknown. Always.
[1]: https://medium.com/predict/the-first-physical-warp-drive-mod...
True, the planet shell thing is nuclear grade hopium. But negative energy is big bang level hopium. This is a big downgrade.
...like violating causality?
As far as I understand, the current conjecture is that an Alcubierre drive could move at faster than light speeds (if negative mass/energy to build it existed), but that it it tried to move to its own past, it would either destroy itself because of some conjectured quantum gravity phenomenon - this is called the "chronology protection conjecture" and Alcubierre himself talked about it:
> The conjecture has not been proven (it wouldn't be a conjecture if it had), but there are good arguments in its favor based on quantum field theory. The conjecture does not prohibit faster-than-light travel. It just states that if a method to travel faster than light exists, and one tries to use it to build a time machine, something will go wrong: the energy accumulated will explode, or it will create a black hole.
[0] https://web.archive.org/web/20160318223348/http://ccrg.rit.e... (last three slides touch on this area)
Not exactly. In the standard cosmology, in an equatorial slicing (cf. slicing a cone with each plane perpendicular to the axis, giving circles) of the expanding universe, space expands very slightly at each point in space as the cosmological time ticks by. If we choose a point (p,t) and some coarsening procedure to reduce the count of points immediately around (p,t) to a finite number, then very soon after at (p,t+\epsilon), and using the same coarsening procedure, there will be more points immediately around p. So, for example, for something (p=const,t_0) we might count seven points in which we could find that something at t_1: {(p,t_1),(p x+1,t_1),(p x-1,t_1), (p y+1, t_1), ...}. But there might be, say, twelve points immediately around (p,t_n), twenty-four around (p,t_{n+n}), etc. The same thinking applies at every point in space with the same value of t. As the universe ages, the numbers of points in space is already enormous and at each of those points in space we add more points.[1]
To that last paragraph we add a system of coordinates where there are cosmological observers[2] "stuck" at a particular spatial coordinate like (x,y,z) at all times, observing more space appearing between them, requiring coordinates in between to label that space. Physically these observers, if already distant, see each other's image becoming smaller, dimmer, and redder, as if they were accelerating away from each other. Physically neither observer detects such an acceleration -- they are in perfect free-fall.
The metric expansion, and accelerated expansion, can be (and is usually treated as) purely local. Nothing interacts superluminally, and there is no need from observation to have large nonuniformities in local expansion in the known universe. That is, at large enough distance scales, the local expansion at any point is well-modelled as constant at all points and at all times: the cosmological constant. (At smaller distance scales, in regions dominated by gravitationally collapsing matter (including dark matter), the local expansion is zero. "Manhattan is not expanding", nor is the rest of the solar system or anything in our galactic cluster as far as we can tell).
In the unknown early universe, various approaches to cosmic inflation essentially generatesa lot more new points around old points than expansion does, and the difference in inflation around any point can be large (loosely, the number-of-points-generated-at-point-p gap between "expanding" and "not expanding" is much narrower than the gap between "inflating" and "inflating less" let alone "not inflating").
> 93-billion light-years wide universe that's only 13 billion years old
There are a lot more points between galaxy clusters in an expanding universe than there is in a non-expanding universe. (Inflation already stopped making new points in space long before the first protons formed, let alone galaxies).
For the most part part galaxy clusters tend to become more compact over time; the matter in them is thick and trending thicker. Expansion doesn't arrest that trend at all. Galaxy clusters shine across the electromagnetic spectrum, and also expel neutrinos and some amount of hot dust and gas. That thin expelled matter does not block expansion very close to it, and so thin matter gets smeared across new points as they appear in its immediate neighbourhood. In the cosmological frame this means stretching their wavelengths or equivalently reducing their kinetic energy or equivalently reducing their temperature adiabatically. However, the expansion is not strong enough to break molecular bonds, so molecules will cool; they won't snap apart because of standard expansion. (Likewise expansion doesn't ionize atoms or fission nuclei; it barely distorts clouds or streams of thick-enough molecular gas that float out of galaxy clusters. The key to turning expansion off is thickness of matter, which may be generated by electromagnetic interactions or even just gravitation).
Now, let's talk about "actual" FTL. There is "local" FTL in which a massive object and a pulse of light starting at the same point ends up with the massive object winning a short race ("short" being e.g. micrometers to kilometres). Our notions of causality arise from the structure of spacetime ("a Lorentzian manifold" gives us a particular <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causal_structure>), and (if not interfered with, i.e., in vacuum) massless objects (like a pulse of light) move at a particular speed that no massive object can exactly reach. A local FTL event is incompatible with a Lorentzian manifold, but if we see local FTL, out goes the objection that "everything we do strongly supports our idea that the universe is Lorentzian". (<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modern_searches_for_Lorentz_vi...>)
While reliably observing a local FTL event might seem inconvenient for the theories, relativists could certainly cope with what they would see as a breaking of the global hyperbolicity condition of our universe (which we get from having local Lorentz Invariance everywhere).
Alcubierre-like ideas do not break local Lorentz invariance; there is no local FTL, so it is less disturbing in some ways than tachyons or whatever. Indeed, Alcubierre neatly packaged up his idea into a "bump function" on a perfectly normal Lorentzian spacetime.
The Alcubierre idea essentially just breaks the constant cosmic expansion at points immediately around the "ship", making a lot lot lot more points behind the ship and destroying (or shrinking) a lot of points in front of it. It's a local effect confined to the region around the thin shell of the "warp bubble". The hardest thing is to make the space around the ship relax back to something close to what it was before the bubble zipped through it, and that's the source of many of the objections rooted in properties of as-yet-unobserved matter.
However, if we assume that this is all workable and ship or computer memory chip or whatever goes from A to B faster than light can, our global causal structure cannot be the strongest ones we can get by having local Lorentz invariance everywhere.
In principle we are probably ok climbing down to nearly any rung of the <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causality_conditions> however for most of those we can't "just" take a set of initial values and evolve them forward, which is everyone's preferred approach to problems in general relativity. The intial value formulation of general relativity came decades after exact solutions like Schwarzschild's and Lemaître, Tolman and Bondi, and perturbations upon all those, so this is a luxury that was not always available to relativists, and at least if future relativists lose global hyperbolicity they will have computers with lots of fast memory.
Examining a warp bubble spacetime that is on a lower rung of the causality ladder essentially requires completely specifying the values of all the fields at all the points in a large region as an "exception" sandwiched between two time-separated "initial" values fields. This requirement was part of Alcubierre's motivation to think about a warp bubble -- he already had an interest in the initial values approach and where it becomes hard to use and where it breaks down (indeed he wrote a textbook that deals with that, <https://academic.oup.com/book/9640)>).
As Alcubierre suggests in the quote you found, global hyperbolicity is what we appear to have in our universe, and there is nothing obviously "enforcing" it. So why isn't there obvious FTL in many places (or even everywhere)? Who knows. There is no "right" answer to that, and it might end up that it's just a feature of our universe like its three spatial and one timelike dimension. (cf. <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Globally_hyperbolic_manifold>).
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[1] This invites a Zeno's paradox view of the metric expansion. At later times there are more steps that one must take between "0" and "1" (and at the same time even more steps between "1" and "2" on the same ruler). One has to visit every mark on the ruler between origin and destination, but the number of marks doubles and re-doubles and re-re-doubles over the course of one's travel.
[2] Experts will recognize that HN is a place for informal descriptions, and that here I flick (without explicit warning) between thinking in terms of comoving coordinates (more space between each coordinate, or more time for a pulse of light to move between two coordinates) and, without saying so, thinking in terms of Fermi coordinates (e.g. <https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00023-011-0080-9>) when taking a more, um, expansive view of Raychaudhri's equations. I apologize if that makes this harder to follow for people familiar with the mathematical details of physical cosmology.
http://www.physicsmatt.com/blog/2016/8/25/why-ftl-implies-ti...
Generally speaking, all three of FTL (travel/communication), causality and relativity cannot all be true at the same time. If you can FTL-travel/communicate (they are the same really), then you can come up with a scenario in which an observer can see an event happening, and then see the cause of that event after it happened.
Extending that logic, if the observer can also move at superluminal speeds, he could prevent the cause of the event after seeing the event happen, leading to a paradox.
This is a guess, i.e. one possible outcome physicists are considering.
People have proposed alternative outcomes of FTL like the (in my opinion much more sensible) Novikov consistency principle, which roughly proposes that spacetime and the entities it contains (e.g. an observer's wordline) should be looked upon as a whole, in the sense that they need to be self-consistent. Spacetime is not time-dependent and does not evolve, so it does not make much sense to say "something something leads to a [spacetime] paradox".
In short, if I were to instantaneously poof out of existence here on Earth, poof into existence on Mars a second later, grab a rock, poof out of existence again, and poof back into existence back on Earth again another second later and hand you that rock, it doesn't seem reasonable to assert that I traveled backward in time when I clearly traveled forward by two seconds. The whole lecture on that external observer is irrelevant, since there's nothing to observe unless the observer happens to be in my bubble/wormhole/whatever - and even then, one'd only be observing subluminal actions/signals within that region of spacetime.
Your example assumes there is some underlying rate at which time advances for the universe (or at least Earth and Mars) and that spacetime as we know it (including relativity and time dilation) are just some kind of modifier on top.
But theory and experiment so far point to that not being the case. There is no "pop out of existence here and pop in over there" without time travel (as best as we can tell). The whole light cone / worldline explanations are more formal explanations of that.
Now you can magic this problem away by proposing any number of schemes... like saying the entire universe's worldline is exists within a metaworldline and time travel actually resets the state of the universe as it was in the past then re-runs the universe... but all of that always proceeds forward in the metaworldline. In other words all past histories existed in a causal order, changing the past just adds "new commits" to the universe but history is never really rewritten. Bam! Our magic theory solves all paradox problems without requiring billions of parallel universes and allows time travel! But it's not a theory we can test or make predictions with so it isn't a useful scientific theory. It might as well be literal magic.
Similarly you could propose that GR is wrong... but your new theory is gonna need to match GR's predictions that have proven true while making some new ones we can test, while also avoiding or explaining causality and paradoxes.
Not necessarily; only that time is advancing in a forward direction. Whether 1 second on Earth is 1 second or 10 seconds or 0.1 seconds or what have you on Mars doesn't change the underlying premise: something disappeared from one place and appeared some positive amount of time later in another place. The only way I see that implying backward time travel is if time on Earth or Mars is already advancing backward, and if that's the case then the effects of Alcubierre drives on causality are probably the least of our worries.
And on that note...
> There is no "pop out of existence here and pop in over there" without time travel (as best as we can tell). The whole light cone / worldline explanations are more formal explanations of that.
The whole concept of a "light cone" seems to assume that spacetime is uniform (or at least doesn't have bubbles or holes in it). If spacetime is lumpy / Swiss cheesy (as Alcubierre drives or wormholes would cause, respectively), then that would result in similar lumpiness or holeyness in the light cone. In other words: why assume that it's "cone" shaped in situations that would in all likelihood dramatically deform that cone? In other other words: the light cone / worldline explanations don't really address cases where spacetime is outright deformed to shorten the distance something has to travel in order to go from point A to point B.
Further, the "light cone" argument (as presented in the article) seems to hinge on when observers find out about events... but just because an observer observed something to happen in a given order doesn't mean it actually happened in that order. If the light from Mars blowing up reaches us one second before the light from Pluto blowing up reaches us, does that mean that Mars blew up one second before Pluto did? It doesn't seem like observations are absolute truths, and I'm failing to understand why we're treating them as such.
The issue is that if you have a subluminal (but moving at a significant fraction of the speed of light) observer outside the reference frames of Earth and Mars, there are conditions where they could see you appear on Mars, and then communicate back to Earth -- before you left -- to tell you not to poof to Mars in the first place.
This doesn't have anything to do with the idea of physically moving through space at some rate (that is, "touching" every point between Earth and Mars during your journey there); poofing from one place to another would have the same effect. And I don't think it matters how much time you spend on Mars, whether it's 1 second or 1 day, before poofing back to Earth.
Also, this explanation does not suggest that the poofer has time-traveled to the past (as you argue against); it's the fast-but-subluminal observer who has done so.
At least that's how I understand it; I'm no physicist.
There wouldn't be anything meaningful to observe:
- An observer on Earth would see me poof out of existence and poof back into existence with a rock in my hand; a few minutes later, with a really good telescope, that observer might see me poof into existence on Mars, take a rock, and poof back out of existence.
- An observer on Mars would see me poof into existence, take a rock, and poof back out of existence; a few minutes later, with a really good telescope, that observer might see me poof out of existence on Earth and poof back into existence while holding a rock.
- An observer somewhere in between with a really good telescope might be able to see the poofing in and out of existence on Earth and/or Mars, but would only receive that light after I had already returned to Earth, and would lack the necessary information to reliably assert which happened first.
The relevance of that fast-but-subluminal observer is dependent on me actually traversing every last micron of space from Earth to Mars and back in those two seconds, but that ain't what's happening. Rather, I'm taking a shortcut, and in order for the observer to observe anything other than the endpoints said observer would need to be taking that same exact shortcut alongside me - otherwise, at worst, the observer just sees two copies of me (one on Earth, and one on Mars), and by the time the observer thinks to do anything about that I would already have handed you a Mars rock.
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The more mathy explanation of this involves the Lorentz factor, which in Lisp (because I'm on my computer and Emacs is handy) is (assuming c = 1):
(defun lorentz-factor (v) (/ 1 (sqrt (- 1 (expt v 2)))))
where v is the relative velocity between to reference frames. So, (lorentz-factor 0.1) would correspond to something moving at 0.1c, (lorentz-factor 1) would correspond to something moving at the speed of light, and (lorentz-factor 2) would correspond to something moving at twice the speed of light.You'll notice that (lorentz-factor 1) produces a division by zero, and that anything past that produces imaginary numbers. That's the basis for the "FTL implies time travel" argument; it assumes that something is actually traveling at a faster-than-light velocity (i.e. actually moving through every last micron of the space from Earth to Mars and back within those two seconds) and thus producing a Lorentz factor which - when plugged into a full Lorentz transformation - would imply backward time travel.
However, that ain't really applicable to the "poofing" above (nor is it applicable to Alcubierre drives or wormholes, of which said "poofing" is an abstraction), because the specific premise here is that I am not actually moving at a velocity significantly above 0; instead, I'm stretching the space behind me / contracting the space in front of me (in the case of an Alcubierre drive) or punching a shortcut between two points in space (in the case of a wormhole) such that I don't have to move at a speed significantly greater than zero. Since my velocity remains basically 0, my Lorentz factor ends up being basically 1, and thereby eliminates the mathematical basis for my "poofing" having any implication of backward time travel.
Another interesting reactionless drive within possibility:
> "Swimming in spacetime" is a general relativistic effect, where an extended body can change its position by using cyclic deformations in shape to exploit the curvature of space, such as due to a gravitational field.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reactionless_drive#Movement_wi...
No, it isn't. You can't "get around" conservation of momentum.
> Swimming in spacetime
Still doesn't allow you to violate conservation of momentum. The article you link to notes this.
* you don’t have anything to pay for it with
* your consciousness is the equivalent of an amoeba and it doesn’t occur to anyone to bother
* you are the first, someone has to be
* theres a whole other way to exist, creatures who live in quantum electrodynamics bound reality are boring
* somebody has been and is negotiating, just not you
* everybody eventually lives a billion years, the thousands of years human civilization has existed barely registers, they’ll get around to it after breakfast
* your species isn’t cool enough and nobody wants to be your friend
* your species keeps turning the salesman into a god
* nobody has noticed you yet, it’s a big universe and there’s plenty of other fun things to do
I have wondered if some of Kafka's writings belong in the science fiction genre.
If we even proved it was possible at table top scale I’d be about 99% convinced we are first in at a bare minimum our galaxy.
I would also argue that we should scale it up and get a presence out there fast in case someone less nice than us is also inventing one right now. (And we aren’t all that nice.)
Maybe space is a bit more emptier than you think, and FTL is a bit slower.
Or maybe it is busy, but we haven't waited long enough. I mean think of a native American in the 1400s. If transoceanic travel is possible, why haven't we seen visitors from other continents yet?
Finally, it is still entirely possible that "they" are already there, and there is a cover up. I don't believe it (Occam's razor), but if FTL turns out to be theoretically possible, than I think I will have to update my beliefs :-)
laughs in some 700CE-vintage Polynesian language while munching on a sweet potato
Not under the Zoo hypothesis: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zoo_hypothesis
Makes me wonder if UFO sightings are from misguided extraterrestrial missionaries trying to teach us about their Lord and Savior Behemecoatyl.
There's plenty of other reasons it's still just a theory, but that isn't one here, if I read it right.
The main problem is that it requires exotic matter with negative mass or negative energy. I don't think we have any good evidence to suggest such a state of matter is possible in this universe.
However, there were some recent papers describing warp drive geometries with only positive mass.
Not that I understand the physics well enough to do anything with this, but as you say, there is other work that's definitely (claiming) positive-only energy densities.
The ship drags the bubble along with it at sublight speed using normal thrusters.
The math can only work (if it even does) in exceptionally constrained circumstances. The main purely-theoretical issue is that the paper's <https://arxiv.org/abs/2102.06824v2> solution is wholly spherically symmetric, and with vacuum everywhere but in the warping region.
"Fig. 1: Asymptotically-flat vacuum background ... general stationary curved region with a spherical topology ... (the warping region) ... flat inner region ... ('passenger' space). ... As we discuss in Section 5, warp drive spacetimes require some form of propulsion in order to accelerate. For this reason, in physical realisations of such spacetimes, the front and rear parts are likely asymmetric". [emphasis mine]
Do the maths fall apart if we deviate from total spherical symmetry, either by changing the front and rear parts, or by breaking the vaccuum condition on the inside and outside of the shell, especially if our matter is not precisely spherically distributed?
They do a review of this, for limited deviations from spherical symmetry, in §4. However, the vaccum condition is what they study, not straying very far from their earlier "if [the warp region] were replaced by Minkowski spacetime, the whole spacetime would be Minkowski space."
The paper declines to answer the question about the distribution of matter (i.e., not-vacuum): "all warp drive spacetimes are asymptotically-flat ... no metric which describes an accelerating warp drive solution has been presented in the literature ... metrics for ... accelerating objects and more general axisymmetric objects which preserve their shape and mass ... remains a subject for future studies". That last part suggests that the inside part might be kept appropriately symmetrical through dynamic reconfiguration of the things inside (i.e., the ship, cargo, fuel, passengers).
But what about outside the warping region? In our solar system, and in our galaxy, we are not in Minkowski space.
The outer part of the warp region, being asymptotically flat, might be amenable to a "thin shell" (Israel/Darmois junction formalism) with the warp bubble far enough away from everything outside that it feels no tidal forces, which for the purposes of the text above is "acceleration". What determines how far is far enough away? The authors don't attempt an answer.
There are plenty of things (stars, most notably) in our part of the galaxy that will induce tides. The solar component of the lunisolar tide in Earth's oceans is substantial at 1 astronomical unit from our sun. That solar component doesn't go away when a space craft is (for example) 2 a.u. away from Earth&Moon on the opposite side of the sun. Can one zip this warp bubble safely past a 1 solar mass star at a distance of 1 au? Ten au? Can the warping region or passenger region be adjusted to allow for close approaches/operation within a star system? All questions for some possible future paper.
Apart from stars, we inhabit a region of space which is dotted with things you can smack into (from the very solid like rocks and iron to the very wispy, stuff will still tend to slow you down when you hit it; deceleration and acceleration are the same issue). Near luminous enough stars, radiation pressure might also induce non-negligible accelerations. Is any of that relevant? If relevant, is it "fixable"? How? Alter the shape of the warping region, or the passenger region, or both? Questions for some possible future paper.
So, even if one accepts for the sake of argument that the maths are flawless and further one just assumes the existence of controllable negative energy densities, this paper's maths are designed for a spacetime which overall isn't very much like what we have within a few hundred lightyears of here. Maybe some future paper will attempt to show that a warp bubble can work in more realistic spacetimes than almost-everywhere-empty-of-matter-and-feeling-no-gravitation setting of this paper. ("Almost-everywhere" means that there is matter and curvature in the warping region, and maybe the passenger region, but nowhere else, not even a destination star a dozen light-years away).
Pre-Wright, flight was the former, not the latter.
Whether that will provide a way to travel FTL in space time or outside it, we don’t know. But the science is not as settled as it seems even if mere mortals cannot think up a theory to beat the truly incredible power of GR.
Nearly all of these ideas spring from a basic inability to understand the domain of a function. The domain is the set of values for which the function is defined. Any other values are undefined f(x) = 1/x for example has a domain of anything but 0.
So what happens is that people plug negative values into quantities like mass without any basis for what negative mass is and then use that as a basis for [insert FTL system here]. Why stop there? Why not use imaginary masses?
There is no negative mass. There is no negative energy. The domain of velocity is [0,c].
Even if you ignore that, no one goes far enough to calculate the energy requirements of, for example, "folding space" or creating a wormhole. If you do the math, it turns out you need to convert a significant portion of a stellar mass into energy.
The future isn't Star Trek nor Star Wars no matter how much you want it to be.
It's also important to remember that space has expanded far faster than the speed of light in the past - c is only a limit for the speed that matter or energy can move at, it's not a limit for how space-time can change shape. We know this because the observable universe is ~93 billion light-years in size, but only ~13 billion years old - so it's size has grown faster than c.
I'm with you on the idea that none of this means practical controlled faster-than-light travel will ever exist, though. Jury's still out on slower-than-light folding-space drives, though.
> We show that a class of subluminal, spherically symmetric warp drive spacetimes, at least in principle, can be constructed based on the physical principles known to humanity today.
I'm no physicist to be able to evaluate the claim more deeply, but it is a published peer-reviewed article.
The more famous Alcubierre drive, the one that can go faster than light, does require negative energy density.