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So - your theory is that a loan practice which has been illegal since the late 1960's is responsible for the current high and growing crime in Chicago? What's the mechanism for that?

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Do I think 50 years of overt, de jure housing segregation that locked Black families into neighborhoods where they were explicitly not allowed to get home loans had any long term impact on the communities of people that lived there? A little, yeah, yeah I guess I do. I don't think "the late 60s" is the mic drop you think it is; some of us were alive in the late 1960s.

So what do you think the mechanism is?

Explain why so much of the rest of the world passed redlined communities.

Korea, Israel, Czech, Hungary, Poland, etc etc. The data strongly contradicts your implied thesis.

But you think people born in what is one of the wealthiest cities in the world shouldn't be compared to urban Indians or people (like my dad) born in a mud hut.

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