Third-polarizing-filter experiment demystified (2004)
alienryderflex.com
alienryderflex.com
The light does not "pass" through the middle filter, but it excites oscillations in the material, which effectively re-emits the light with different properties. The incoming light polarized at 0° induces oscillations in electrons which are "bound to a rail" in the material, which allows them to only oscillate in the direction of 45° (and all oscillations in the direction of -45° are absorbed). Therefore, a portion of the incoming field essentially gets re-emitted by the middle filter linearly polarized at 45°.
This representation is much less helpful if you think of the light in terms of individual photons rather than fields of course, but it is not worse than the article in this regard either.
How light actually behaves is probably beyond the ability of human cognition (since so much happens in a billionth of a second)
This is not remotely true. The behavior of light is very well understood and relatively simple to model compared to other, less linear physical processes.
When you really dig into this stuff your realise stuff like the density of air is really an abstraction that doesn't quite fit what is actually going on.
If we're talking about something like fluorescence, there's a fairy clear point where one photon disappears and another appears.
In a linear process like this, photons are not really absorbed by the material. In fact, the quantum behavior of photons is not relevant to the process, so you can just treat it purely as a wave phenomenon.
In cases like this, I would generally say that it is the "same" photon, but again, not really appropriate to think in terms of photons when there is nothing about the process that depends on quantization.
If I were to answer this question in terms of photons as small amounts of field oscillations, I would argue that these are "new" photons, due to the fact that the "old" ones induced oscillations in the dipole moment of the material, which then in turn radiated energy out as the "new" photons.
But you can just as easily think of it as the material "suggesting" a better direction to the field propagating through it, and thus reorienting it. This is just very difficult to imagine and describe, at least for me.
I guarantee I've misused a term or two above. Hopefully you get what I'm asking.
Taking a stab at my own question, the "rails" are field lines within the material, and not electrons themselves that interact. Is that close?
Any textbook on electricity and magnetism will cover this in a section called something like “Maxwell’s equations in materials”.
I was trying to describe the propagation of light in a material, where the optical field induces oscillations in the dipoles of the material, and these dipoles in turn excite the optical field. This happens constantly in every nanometer of the material, and it is difficult to experimentally separate the field into the "material" portion and the "vacuum" portion, because it exists as an everchanging mixture as long as there are dipoles around.
As for the "rails", the way I've had it explained to me is that in one direction of a polarizer, electrons are free to move, so they fully absorb the light polarized in that direction. In the perpendicular direction, they are bound, and the best they can do in reaction to a field is oscillate back and forth a tiny bit. These oscillations excite an optical field again and it propagates further until it finds another dipole to excite. I like to crudely imagine a polarizer as the grid of a nanoscopic egg slicer :D. Field oscillations will get absorbed along the metal wires, but in the perpendicular direction, it will just excite vibrations in the wires, which will radiate them out again, sort of like a guitar string.
Let me know if this was helpful, or if I've made a mistake somewhere :).
I have always thought (how I got there I don't know) that the polarizer did something weird like rotate the photon to the correct phase angle AND passed it through with probability based on the angle / or didn't let it pass. This would give a similar reduction in intensity for a desktop experiment while having similar but different details when looking at the photon level. Is this correct?
If you want an explanation and prediction of what happens at the level of single photons, you need more structure from the theory of quantum optics. But briefly the filter at angle T does a measurement on the photon in the basis {T, T+pi/2}, and you end up seeing the photon on the other side of the filter only with whatever probability the photon has for being in state |T>, as opposed to state |T+pi/2>.
So, filters are inherently destructive and fewer and fewer photons pass through each subsequent filter. And a photon that makes it through a filter at angle T, now has a new state |T>.
They’re not an explanation for continuous waves in between, but the mathematics largely works anyway because photons are very similar to how one would do a Monte Carlo numerical simulations of continuous wave phenomena.
This has resulted in an unbelievable amount of confusion…
If you make the energy in a mode of the EM field continuous, you get the famous 'ultraviolet catastrophe.' This holds whether the matter involved has a continuous emission spectrum or not.
One is that when we send out a single photon worth of energy, even in an isotropic or other multi-path emission pattern, we only ever seem to detect a single photon. You can prove this with a half mirror and two detectors. This is kind of weird - not clear how this works, and the core question driving different quantum interpretations.
Second is that the energy level of a single photon detection is based on the constraint that Et=h (t is period), also written E=hf. This is not related to atomic properties of the detector. Why? Equation does not depend on any variable of the detector.
Same goes for Px=h. (Momentum/wavelength relationship.) You can prove that one with two razor blades close together. Same relationship, but along space axes instead of time.
Also for uncertainty principle - reinterpret EPtx as the variance of their distributions.
All of this is some sort of fundamental constraint of the universe around quantities of dimension force*time*distance (action). Not related to atoms per se. Not that I understand why this constraint exists. I know some ways to think about it mathematically, but not intuitively.
Fundamentally, you have to believe in nonsense such as kilometer-sized particles that are also infinitesimal if your point of view is that photons are particles.
Many of the "mysteries" of Quantum Mechanics vanish if keep in the back of your mind that QM is just a bag of mathematical tricks that "work" in specific scenarios to solve practical problems, but aren't a model of "what actually occurs".
Practically all of it is restricted to statistical predictions related to matter. Remove matter or remove statistics and then the models are no longer valid.
I'm not making this up. Go dig up any of the original QM papers and these assumptions and/or constraints are called out in the first few paragraphs.
They also tend to start vanishing once you get to studying Quantum Field Theory, which based on your comments I'm not convinced you have. Field Quanta very much "exist" (not getting into a debate on platonism here), and the debate between paticle/wave doesn't.
> I'm not making this up.
No, somebody else is, and you're buying it.
I wouldn't trust him either. What does he know?
You're basically arguing that the assumptions of QM theory that is in many of the older papers for some reason stopped mattering. That they've been invalidated... somehow, instead of simply being dropped for brevity in newer papers, assuming that everyone knows them already.
All I'm saying is that if you go back to the original version of the theory, they were quite clear about the scope: a statistical theory that applies to ensembles of atoms.
In theoretical Physics, especially when dealing with phenomena outside of normal human experience, you have to be very careful with your assumptions otherwise you can make yourself believe all sorts of nonsense.
Such as wave function collapse. Or spooky action at a distance. Both of which stem from a misunderstanding of the limits of the scope of a statistical theory that only applies to some types of physical objects.
That is not true, unless I completely misunderstood what you are trying to say. Photons exist in contexts without any atom involved, e.g. particle/antiparticle pair creation or annihilation. The gamma photons emitted during radioactive decay have nothing to do with orbitals either.
Besides, single photons have been observed. It was an important part of the Young slits experiment. Alain Aspect’s experiments also depend on the existence of single photon pairs. How would they work if photons were not a thing?
Or is it another case of "wave function collapse"? Remember that diffraction grating work too, and they rely on the wave nature of light. It is sometimes said (and can be modeled) that light takes every path from source to destination and the diffraction grating causes many paths to cancel out so it appears to go specific ways. Mirror reflection can also be modeled this way, and making periodic scratches will turn it into a diffraction grating. In the end, a photon detection is like a "measurement" that collapses the reflected wave function.
Photons are never observed "in flight" they are only detected when they hit something. In between they may as well BE a wave function.
Actually I just checked, on page 15:
> I want to emphasize that light comes in this form - particles. It is very important to know that light behaves like particles, especially for those of you who have gone to school, where you were probably told something about light behaving like waves.
Anyway I say "equivalently" because this is just another way to conceptualize the same theory (and make the same predictions), it's not new physics
The exact nature of the relationship of quantumness and fields (i.e. how the single-particle behavior arises from QFT) is still unclear, which is why there are many competing interpretations of quantum mechanics. In the Copenhagen interpretation, which is the most "easy" one, the behavior of photons is just (almost) that of Maxwell's equations, on average, s.t. a single photon will be measured with probability equal to the average light intensity anywhere (they are said to "collapse" at the moment of measurement, which is surely a simplification of a more complete underlying theory).
However, their speed of propagation in the material, and their properties can be altered by the interaction with dipole moments of the material. Therefore, photons do indeed "go trough without collision" but not without interaction. The dipoles in a dielectric material such as glass need to take the energy to oscillate from the field, and then they give it back to the field by radiating it out again.
I agree that this is not "re-emission" in the absorption/emission diagram sense, and I understand that the field in a material cannot be separated into the material portion and the vacuum portion, since it is both at any given time, but what I have tried to outline in the previous comment is still a useful representation of the role of the material which the original article chose to leave out. I should have used "radiate" and "dipole" instead of "emit" and "electron" to make it a bit clearer.
For a photon coming in at 45 degrees to the polarization angle, the probability that another photon will be emitted is sin(45deg) =~ 70% and the probability that it will be absorbed is 1/sin(45deg) =~ 30%.
(This is also a simplification; polarization angle is similarly quantum in nature, and I have assumed it to be collapsed here)
This is correct. The linked article doesn't explain how the single-photon behaves. It's the same issue that the two-slit experiment has if you try to ignore quantum behavior: You still can't say which slit a single photon passes through.
They say that if we use two entangled photons and let them fly far apart, then pass one of them through two filters, and the second photon through the middle filter, the first photon will be affected - it will get a chance to pass though the pair of filters.
That they say is "spooky action at distance" - the second photon will influence behaviour of the first photon at the remote site of the experiment and the "influence" is faster then the speed of light.
Example here by MinutePhysics and 3Blue1Brown: https://youtu.be/zcqZHYo7ONs Explanation about entanglement starts at around 8:50.
But even with that addressed, to me personally this video is not satisfying.
If the spooky action at distance can be observed so trivially - choosing a filter at one site site affects what happens at the remote site - we don't need a mathematical inequality (the Bell's inequality), it's already so obviously spooky.
There are also serious problems with clarity of their explanation, as I commented in https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zcqZHYo7ONs&lc=Ugz3tzpDP_i1N... and https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zcqZHYo7ONs&lc=Ugz3tzpDP_i1N...
I am not sure the real Bell experiments are really done using 3 polarizing filters and will the effect really be observed in experiment with two remote sites.
My conclusion, it's problematic to rely on "pupular science" explanations, even by good channels like MinutePhysics and 3Blue1Brown.
I don't think that can be correct. This would allow FTL communication of information. I could put the filter in the path of the second photon when I wanted to send a 1 and leave it out of the path of the second photon when I wanted to send a 0. In the 1 case the other side would sometimes see the photon pass both filters. In the 0 case the other side would never see the photon pass both filters. Combine this with a little error correction and you have a channel for transmitting arbitrary information faster than light which would violate the no-communication theorem. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No-communication_theorem
The MinutePhysics video you link describes a different setup with only one filter in the path of each photon. This gives you some information about the probability that other photon got past its filter but it doesn't let you transmit anything.
But my main point is that the video addresses the issue from the article.
The video lays out intuition for the Bell's theorem using the 3 filter experiment. And then, at 8:50 they say: "what if the act of passing through one filter changes how the photon will later interact with other filters? Then you can easily explain the results of the experiment" and continue explaining that the real spookiness can be proven in a distributed experiment.
It's also a nice exercise to see the polarizer as a linear transformation on the horizontal and vertical direction of the light: if the polarizer is oriented at direction θ, it's equivalent to rotating the light by -θ, keeping only the horizontal component, and rotating back. If you work out the matrixes for rotations 0, π/4, and π/2, you can see that multiplying 0 and π/2 gives the zero matrix, while multiplying 0, π/4, and π/2 keeps a nonzero component.
You can consider a wave passing through a filter as a sum of two orthogonal waves, rSin(θ) + rCos(θ), θ being the angle between the light-wave and the filtered angle, r being the amplitude of the wave.
One wave gets eliminated, and whatever exits exits at the only angle it can, the angle orthogonal to the filtered angle.
The reason, for example, that the 45 degree filter leaves 1/(2^.5) ~= .7
It's just the trigonometric break down of the right-angle isosceles.
Several replies explained how the effect can be explained without quantum mechanics.
This article (linked in one of those comments) is so clear, and I'm amazed I haven't seen it on HN before.
Quantum mechanics predicts that the difference is a factor of 4, not a factor of 2.
Power is proportional to the square of the amplitude. I don't know if that's what you're doing here, but it's a familiar pitfall.
According to the article, the "spookiness" comes from a misunderstanding of what a polarizer does. It doesn't "block" all light polarized on axes different from the polarizer. We know this is true because otherwise sunglasses would transmit much less light than they do. Imagine sunglasses could block any photon within +/- 1 degree of the polarization plane. That means that just 1/180th of the light would get through. But the observed transmission is much higher.
Instead, the polarizer does two things. First, it emits light polarized parallel to its axis. But, and this is the key, all incident light gets effectively passed. Along the way the intensity (amplitude, or "magnitude" in the article) is attenuated based on deviation from the polarizer's plane. The attenuation is 0% for light polarized in parallel and 100% for light polarized perpendicularly.
Now we can understand the experiment with a new mental model. Three filters are placed in series (A, B, and C). However, we can disregard A for the most part and treat this as a two-filter system (B, C), where the light exiting B is attenuated relative to the light entering A and polarized along B's axis. This model explains all of the observations.
One feature request: the setups are small enough that you could fit a description of them into the URL. This would allow people to much more easily share setups on forums and twitter and etc. This is what I did in Quirk and it's been one of the more useful features https://algassert.com/quirk#circuit=%7B%22cols%22%3A%5B%5B%2...
When it comes to links - a good point. I do like the StackOverflow style. I will discuss it with the team.
This is an aspect of the quantum zeno effect. Normally it means to measure quickly while rotating an object to pin the object against the rotation. But here you instead measure a static object quickly while rotating the measuring device to force the object to rotate.
What QM brings to the table is the explanation for what happens particle-by-particle.
I dont get the desire to cast light as something non quantum...
Because you can describe it entirely using classical physics in this situation
This thread is very weird, there are a lot of people saying nonsense about photons not existing and absorption and re-emission (things that are detailed in any quantum physics textbook in existence). As if the fact that we can also explain the movement of planets around the sun somehow makes general relativity unnecessary or somewhat invalid. Quite disturbing.
It's basically misinformation, especially in the twitter thread that others mentioned. People are coming out thinking their mind has been blown with some crazy quantum effect, but actually this is described by boring classical EM.
Polarisation is used in many books and courses as a familiar classical system, which we then use to springboard into Stern-Gerlach, which actually is an inherently quantum effect.
Polarisation already appears when writing down the full solution to the classical EM wave equation. On the other hand, the similar effect seen in the Stern-Gerlach experiment with the angular momentum measurements is not: the non-commutivity of the angular momentum operator for different measurement axes is a purely quantum phenomenon.
The fact that we can understand a macroscopic phenomenon using classical EM theory is thoroughly uninteresting, as the vast majority of what we see every day is a combination of quantum objects that we can understand macroscopically with classical physics. Of course people had EM theory before Planck. It’s still just a bunch of photons.
It is as not a personal attack of your knowledge, just that I don’t think your conclusion about people’s behaviour was right. My Physics PhD is as relevant as yours here :)
Anyone who is saying that is obviously wrong and of course I am not claiming that (although I do think that photons are probably bullshit)
> The fact that we can understand a macroscopic phenomenon using classical EM theory is thoroughly uninteresting
Why is it uninteresting? To me as a physicist this is thoroughly interesting!
> It’s still just a bunch of photons.
This is somewhat misleading, the wave description of light is complete and still totally preserved in quantum optics. The only deficiency is that the light's energy density should be quantised. You absolutely should not think of light as infinitely small particles that move at the speed of light, that is an inaccurate and outdated picture.
This thread has fine examples of people doing just that, I did not invent it.
> Why is it uninteresting? To me as a physicist this is thoroughly interesting!
It is interesting in that it’s an example of QM agreeing with classical EM theory. The opposite would be quite an issue actually, because it would mean that QM does not behave at the classical limit. There are lots of other examples of QM agreeing with classical mechanics, there is nothing magical about polarisers.
> the wave description of light is complete and still totally preserved in quantum optics. The only deficiency is that the light's energy density should be quantised.
In a narrow range of quantum optics maybe. I work on radiation/matter interaction, and you definitely cannot account for a lot of things if you posit that light is a wave. Unless you add some particle-like characteristics to your wave, in which case it’s not much better than assigning arbitrary wave-like properties to a particle.
> You absolutely should not think of light as infinitely small particles that move at the speed of light
I don’t.
> that is an inaccurate and outdated picture
It is not a wave either. The problem is when we try to pigeonhole it in either character. I mean, really, are we arguing the whole wave/particle duality concept again? That was novel a century ago.
Also I have to ask, how do you think of a particle?