I don't understand how this wouldn't be the exact situation you'd want to be in. my understanding is this:
1. If you're granted options at price X, and the new share price is lower than X, you're under no obligation to exercise your options. So no real financial loss or cost to you.
2. If you're granted options at price X, and the new share price is higher than X, you're still under no obligation to exercise your options. So it's up to you now.
3. You've exercised options at price X and now it's less than that. Well that sucks. No significant different from publicly traded shares being bought and suffering a price drop. Granted, it's easier to sell your public shares at a loss for reducing tax liability on other capital gains.
4. If you exercised options at price X and it went up then yay, you're winning.
5. If you are ensured to have been given $X worth of options, and your options have dropped to $Y, and now you'll be granted options to cover the difference of $X and $Y, these latest options will be granted at a lower price, $Z, and therefore will be better priced overall. Which would mean you could now exercise the options granted at the higher price or the ones granted at the lower price. Doesn't seem like it really matters or affects anything since the net gain is the same for the year.