Probably a large one.
But if Tesla shares tank, and the other investors bail out, perhaps he just doesn't mechanically have the funds to do so.
Probably a large one.
But if Tesla shares tank, and the other investors bail out, perhaps he just doesn't mechanically have the funds to do so.
De facto? Just observe how often the rich are convicted for their crimes. Even in the rare cases that they are jailed, the severity of the sentence is usually much lower than the common man. Look at Musk himself, he already agreed to not tweet about tesla without the boards approval in an agreement with the SEC to avoid punishment, then routinely ignored it and just fought them in court until he won. Our system allows for anyone with enough money to run out the clock until they either win, the other side gives up, or the situation no longer matters and the case is dropped.
This is like asking for proof that the sky is blue. Perfectly acceptable in an academic context where the laws of physics are being defined at an extremely technical level. However if you’re asking a question like this in the context of every day life, it’s difficult to believe that you are asking in good faith.
Finding examples of the rich getting away with crimes that regular people do not get away with is a simple google search away which is why you come off as sealioning.
On the off chance that you are legitimately asking, here are a few examples
[1] https://www.forbes.com/sites/clareoconnor/2014/06/09/s-c-joh...
[2] https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Affluenza
[3] musk agreeing to stop tweeting about tesla without board certification of the tweet and then doing so anyway
So what "observe how often" means then in your colloquial English?
I legitimately asked about stats. On this forum I presume you know what it is, how it's different from anecdotes. And it makes your behavior look not particularly honest.
You could have sincerely answer: "I have no data, but I have a gut geeling/impression" - that would spare you from wiggling around, and claiming that English is not to express facts.
Did you ignore the links? The Johnson and Johnson heir is anecdata yea but the affluenza defense is an actual used in the court and accepted defense. I don’t need stats in this case when I can point to a single legal precedent
Additionally did you ignore the links I provided with evidence?
But let’s get to the heart of where I expect you to take this thread.
Is there any sort of evidence that you would accept that the rich get greater protection in our legal system? Or is it just not possible in your world view?
If you have what is effectively infinite money as far as the system is concerned, you can break through any barrier
[1] https://qph.fs.quoracdn.net/main-qimg-954cf5204ca388a11909bb...
He won. He prevailed. In court. Whatever you think he did that violated the SEC's order, is not correct, at least in the eyes of the judge or the jury who heard all the evidence and decided the case.
Rich people do have the benefit of hiring excellent lawyers and affording every available opportunity to appeal. But that is not being "above the law," that is the law. At the end of the day, if Musk won even on the 10th appeal or whatever, then you can't say that he committed a crime.
Or, from another perspective: “The law, in its majestic equality, forbids rich and poor alike to sleep under bridges, to beg in the streets, and to steal their bread.”
Besides, you can jail people for contempt.