Arizona police placed on leave after watching man drown
bbc.com
bbc.com
There should be an investigation but some situations are just bad and nothing can change that.
The Arizona drowning was different. AFAIK cops are not typically required to be able to swim nor are they trained to be lifeguards, especially in places where no swimming is allowed (which this was). Even if one of the cops did know how to swim and happened to be trained in water rescue, he/she would have needed to take the time to doff all their gear before going into the water or they would have sunk like a rock. And in that case, who guards their gear? Their partner obviously, but now they've left their partner alone with a potentially hostile crowd while the partner is also guarding their weapons and trying to make sure the officer who entered the water is not drowning. And what if the swimming officer starts to have difficulty? Who rescues them?
If I were the supervisor of these officers and one entered the water alone while leaving his/her partner alone, I would probably fire them for making a dangerous situation worse (if they lived).
The only proper procedure here is to radio for additional resources, which they did. (Whether they did so immediately or dragged their feet is another question.)
EDIT: Looks like 3 officers were involved. This lessens the danger on shore but the danger to a lone swimming officer still applies.
The only way to win is to not play.
Part of the issue is that a good portion of the US worships cops as heroes, and police themselves actively cultivate this image, when in reality they are civil servants.
These cops should have tried to do something more to rescue the man, but jumping into the water to rescue him would have probably just resulted in two deaths instead of the one.
Protect and Serve may be a motto, but it is most certainly not the law.
[0] US police, since the article refers to Arizona. [1] Deshaney vs Winnebago Dept of Social Services, 1989 [2] Castle Rock, CO vs Gonzalez, 2005
I wish we could simply fire police officers for being bad at their jobs without having to prove a criminal case.
In Castle Rock, CO vs Gonzalez, 2005 , one of the supreme court justices is asked "Then what was the point of getting the restraining order" and a reply is heard "to ask the police to do their job". (and nothing more . ie. they don't HAVE to help you if you ask).
So we've established asking the police to do their job is OK. And surely speech is a way to do that. And we know money is speech.
So does that mean it's legal for me to "ask" the police to investigate someone or something by giving them a few million dollars?
Doesn't that also mean I could continually give them millions to investigate something or other to keep them nice and busy so they don't have time or resources to investigate whatever I'm doing on the side?
Money is not speech in all contexts, nor does it follow that because speech is protected by the First Amendment, all monetary transactions are thus equally protected by an equivalence of money to speech. And even if it were the case, the First Amendment doesn't prohibit all limitations on speech, just limitations by the Federal government (and even then, the Supreme Court allows Federal law to govern speech in limited instances[1], such as regulating the airwaves, food labeling.)
Despite the ruling of Citizens United and its implications, which are narrower than "money is speech" implies in the naive case, laws involving money such as theft, embezzlement, and bribery remain on the books. Paying the police to not investigate crimes would obviously not be legal, if for no other reason than the most obvious: there are already laws against it.
I'm not a lawyer, but I don't think I need to be to call this one.
[0]https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Citizens_United_v._FEC
[1]https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_free_speech_exce...
No, we haven't.
A reply heard during oral argument has no binding precedential force.
(And, even if we had, restraining orders are issued by courts; so we would have established that a court of law asking police do due their work is okay.)
> And we know money is speech.
“Money is speech” in the sense that expending your money to publish speech, not in the sense that giving money to people you are trying to sway is speech. (The political speech cases you rely on for that were about independent expenditures for public propaganda, not bribes to politicians.)
> So does that mean it's legal for me to "ask" the police to investigate someone or something by giving them a few million dollars?
No. For the multiple reasons stated above.
Mr Bickings’ companion didn’t jump in and save him either.