> privilege is invisible to those who have it. Just think about that
This is not true (very easy to prove it’s false) and I’d question the intent of who taught you this - it’s the kind of method religions/cults/political parties use to indoctrinate.
This is not true (very easy to prove it’s false) and I’d question the intent of who taught you this - it’s the kind of method religions/cults/political parties use to indoctrinate.
This kind of language ("cult" and "indoctrinate") is a conversation-stopper and does nothing to help anyone. If it's so easy to prove the idea is false, could you do that instead of using baseless invectives?
Same can be said for current usage of "privilege" and "equity".
If all answers are supposedly proof of your claim, that's just another way to silence dissent by invalidating opposing claims and viewpoints.
Ironically, some of the responses saying it's true that privilege invisible to those who have it are demonstrating otherwise. For instance, this [1] response who wrote that they weren't aware of their privilege "until I saw and lived it for myself". If privilege were invisible to those that have it, they wouldn't have been able to see it.
Actually ask around, and the overwhelming majority of people are cognizant that coming from a stable family is a privilege relative to coming from a dysfunctional family. Or coming from a wealthy family is a privilege relative to coming from an impoverished one.
Myself, from a more privileged background, was not even aware of the issues “on the ground” until I saw and lived it for myself. It’s very easy to see where personal bias can cause one to overlook or fail to notice the experience of others.
Is your objection to privileged background failing to notice privilege, or objection to the notion of privilege itself?
Please prove it's false.