How was the decision made to ignore immunity from prior infection?
twitter.com
twitter.com
as in this: https://academic.oup.com/cid/article-abstract/73/12/2366/616...
this quote from the abstract is what I think i was told: we recently reported that 61.1% of mild SARS-CoV-2 infected patients became seronegative for IgG anti-N within 6 months after first positive PCR [2]. Anti-spike (S) antibodies, in contrast, remained positive up to 7 months in an estimated 94% of participants.
It just doesn't last long enough to be counted as useful, compared to immunisation. If you think the 6month window has some efficacy at scale I guess you have a basis to disagree, and we'd be in the Linear Optimisation problem space. This is why I have always believed we needed O/R people to help determine why the decisions fall as they do.
CDC study from a few weeks ago (scroll down to the line graph in the paper, to see how completely misinformed the public has been): https://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/volumes/71/wr/mm7104e1.htm
Additionally, the "antibody count" is completely ridiculous to use as the primary proxy for immunity. Anyone that knows how the immune system actually works can tell you this. Healthy humans have zero circulating antibodies for most of the viruses that they are already immune to. Otherwise the blood would be filled with them. Cells in the bone marrow are where immune memory resides, and the body manufactures circulating antibodies based on these memory cells.
It is intriguing that a lot of high-level decisions were not made based on solid evidence, but this twitter thread also doesn't provide that.
[1] https://drrollergator.substack.com/p/damned-lies-and-vaccine... [2] https://assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/government/uploads/...
I think this was studied and the results showed poor post-infection immunity. Not getting the result we’d like is not the same as ignoring.