Search for your name in pi
dr-mikes-maths.com
dr-mikes-maths.com
I thought we have 10 digits so we can count our fingers.
The first English word in pi is... wait for it... PI, coming in at position 18. Now isn't that cute?
* "allah" isn't there but "jesus" is found twice!
* "hate occurs more than "love"
Just as I was really excited about the mystical possibilities here, I came across this party pooper: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/20566/prove-there-ar...http://www.nieuwarchief.nl/serie5/deel01/sep2000/pdf/borwein...
You almost certainly know that already, so here are a couple more remarks just for fun:
One useful technique when making pseudorandom number generators is to take two not-so-good RNGs and combine their outputs (e.g., adding them or XORing them). If the two RNGs have different enough "structure", the combined generator can have much better statistical properties than either of its two components. The fact that it's much harder to prove anything about pi+e than about pi or e individually is rather like that.
But even proving that pi is irrational is highly nontrivial. (Proving that e is irrational, on the other hand, is a fairly easy exercise. Sketch: suppose e = p/q; then q!e is an integer; but q!e is the sum of a series whose terms are initially integers and then abruptly positive numbers small enough that their sum has to be between 0 and 1; contradiction.)
> Your chances:
> 3 or fewer letters: about 100%
> 7 or more letters: about 0%.
While this might be true for the set he's calculated, doesn't an infinite sequence of non-repeating digits suggest the likelihood of every sequence approaches one as the number of digits are calculated approaches infinity?0.101001000100001..... (continue the obvious pattern)
This number is irrational but there is an obvious pattern to the digits. The pattern is not random. It's an open question on whether or not the digits of pi are randomly distributed. If so then what you write is correct.
Wikipedia says that Pi is widely believed to be normal, but that it's not been proved. It's interesting that almost every real number has this normality property (in the sense that the set of real numbers that are not normal has Lebesgue measure zero), as it sounds like a very restrictive criteria.