The best proof that the Earth spins
profmattstrassler.com
profmattstrassler.com
(1) Thomas precession;
(2) De Sitter or geodetic precession;
(3) Lense-Thirring precession.
The first two are due to the rotation of whatever platform the gyroscope is riding on, in this case the Earth, so they are also evidence for the Earth's rotation. The second is due to the spacetime curvature produced by the Earth. (The third also involves spacetime curvature, through effects on it due to the Earth's rotation.)
(Note that these effects are separate from the effects of imperfect isolation of the gyroscope, which the article discusses.)
You've made a good point, however, that two of these types of precession are evidence that the Earth spins (whether you could convince a flat-Earther of Thomas precession is a separate matter). But let me offer a gentle correction: Thomas and Lense-Thirring precessions are caused by the rotation of the Earth, whereas the geodetic precession is merely caused by the presence of a central mass.
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[1] Gravity Probe B final report: https://arxiv.org/abs/1105.3456
Oops, yes, I misstated this. Thanks for the correction!
I've seen this posted twice in different places by different people this week. It's not true.
While most satellites are west to east (or in polar orbits), most Israeli sats orbit east to west. This is because their launch center is on the west coast of their country and it's not good for them to be launching rockets over their neighbors.
> Shavit rockets are launched from Palmachim Airbase by the Israel Space Agency into highly retrograde orbits over the Mediterranean Sea to prevent debris coming down in populated areas and also to avoid flying over nations hostile to Israel to the east; this results in a lower payload-to-orbit than east-directed launches would allow
Also: https://physics.mcmaster.ca/phys3c03/notes/FoucaultPendulum....
The wand and gyroscope analogy is basically just constructing this scenario I think.
(Disclaimer: I did my PhD in this group but started there after this paper was published.)
Thanks Bob! :-)
My understanding is that the ancients used the celestial spheres to explain the movements of the planets around the Earth - the spheres themselves moved relative to each other hence the different speeds and courses of the planets.
The spheres could be made to work regardless of whether the Earth spins or not. If the Earth is static, then the spheres can still use their relative motions to explain the motion of the planets. In contrast, if the Earth is spinning, you add its spin to that of the spheres and an observer on Earth couldn't tell the difference.
This article is saying that if you can prove how a gyroscope works (itself requiring proof of the Conservation of Angular Momentum), you can show that the earth rotates. Which is ultimately a much simpler thing to prove than things about the nature of the stars themselves.
How do we know? Establishing the cosmic distance ladder requires far more elaborate tools than the ones discussed here (Special and General Relativity, for instance) and the necessary measurements and observations also presume in one way or another that Earth is rotating. Even if you're only talking about stars in our immediate neighborhood for which a distance measurement merely needs the parallax effect (instead of SR or GR): In this case the parallax effects literally rests on the rotation of Earth and its orbit around the sun.
Yes, the lack of star parallaxes were the main argument offered by Tycho Brahe against a moving earth theory. When star parallaxes were observed the motion of earth was accepted. The way I understand it, to measure star parallaxes the earth must move. This is not an assumption, there is no circular reasoning. And we observe different parallaxes for different stars, meaning that stars are not all on the same distance from earth. I don't know if this is a trend like flat earthers to say that all stars are the same distance from the center of the universe?
> In this case the parallax effects literally rests on the rotation of Earth and its orbit around the sun.
So, this way you prove that the earth moves and stars have different parallaxes and are not all attached to a crystal sphere. I don't see a problem here.
Much earlier than Brahe. Aristotle in De Caelo (Book II, part 14):
> The earth, then, also, whether it move about the centre or as stationary at it, must necessarily move with two motions. But if this were so, there would have to be passings and turnings of the fixed stars. Yet no such thing is observed. The same stars always rise and set in the same parts of the earth.
Of course it is an assumption. A star moving across the sky is not a proof by any means.
> And we observe different parallaxes for different stars, meaning that stars are not all on the same distance from earth.
No, we don't measure different parallaxes for different stars. We measure different trajectories for different stars across our night sky and then, using the assumption that Earth rotates and that it is on an orbit around the sun, we conclude that there must be a parallax effect involved in the observed trajectory of the star which we can then use to estimate its distance to us.
> So, this way you prove that the earth moves and stars have different parallaxes and are not all attached to a crystal sphere. I don't see a problem here.
To see that what you're referring to as "proof" is no proof at all, consider that Ptolemy's epicycles (i.e. the elaborate version of the crystal spheres) are just a Fourier series and can therefore be used to describe any periodic movement across the sky. (Without you having to know anything about whether Earth rotates or not.) For a very impressive example see https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=QVuU2YCwHjw .
No, proper motions are well known, https://www.britannica.com/science/proper-motion#:~:text=pro....
So we must further assume that a star attached to a crystal sphere will have a separate motion which also need to be explained.
Two spheres. Proper motion can be explained completely if we allow each star to exist on its own crystal sphere. Layers of spheres could also extend great distances. Maybe the universe is vast, but it is all spheres. What does disprove spheres are collisions of objects having different proper motions.
Wow! I can believe we are discussing in the age of Hubble space telecope and Webb etc. the existence of crystal spheres and how they can explain motions of stars. I don't believe crystal spheres exist but I respect your belief in them. To me they are an unnecessary and cumbursome explanation.
Which means we're already in the domain of Newtonian mechanics, which came almost 80 years after Kepler's laws of planetary motion which gave us a clear understanding of the motion of a bunch of “stars” (yes, planets are not stars but they have the same kind of “star trails”).
The really cool thing about star trails is that it's something really intuitive and easy to observe, and as such it makes a pretty convincing “proof” of earth rotation. Unlike the “proof” in this article, which will leave most people unimpressed (and which as I said earlier, uses a much more advanced physics theory than what's needed if you really want to prove earth rotation with star trails).
Honestly, I don't see much difference between a gyroscope experiment and the Foucault pendulum. Except that the later is much easier to do.
Because maybe the earth is fixed, the heavens all move, and the pendulum is reacting to the heavens. Maybe a tidal force from the stellar spheres is imparting a slight motion on the pendulum. Maybe only objects like gyroscopes are sensitive enough to feel this force.
Trying to answer these questions makes the stellar spheres theory require more and more ad-hoc additions to support.
But Newton does have absolute acceleration. So we can say A is accelerating at 5m/s² without even thinking of B.
Since a rotating body accelerates, we should be able to say that the earth rotates without even thinking of the sky.
The proof does exactly this. Looking at a gyroscope is sufficient to prove that the earth rotates. No need to look at the sky
Yes, simply point the gyroscope towards an arbitrary direction and repeat the same process as in the proof.
If the earth doesn't spin, then the gyroscope would point at the same direction always. But if it does spin then it would show those circles.
Gyroscopes can rule this out as well since they're showing rotational change directly.
This misses the point of the OP, which is to try to provide a simple physical demonstration that anyone could perform or witness which shows that the Earth spins, in particular one that's more intuitive than Foucault's pendulum.
https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.10...
Watch the sky with a notepad.
Bring up a sat video feed.
Mix in some common sense with observations? We've know this for 1,000+ years, probably way way more EG: navigation at sea.