No, not it isn't. That assertion is fundamentally wrong at many levels. It seems you're confusing the intro to economics definition of equilibrium between supply and demand with your own definition of shortage. However, in the process you're making the mistake of believing somehow that pricing out demand from the market and being unable to scale up production to meet demand does not involve any shortages of any kind.
Think about it for a second: I'd suddenly food prices skyrocketed to the point a single 1kg bag of rice sold for over €100, and most of the world was thus unable to buy food for being priced out of the market, would that represent a shortage even if some people could still afford it?