Yes. Everyone in this conversation understands that. There's no relation between the amount and terms on your mortgage for your rental property and the market price to rent a given unit.
If I take a 20 year mortgage does that mean I should charge more rent than if I took 30 years because my payment is higher? Should I drop rent by half when I'm done paying my mortgage since I no longer have a payment? It's nonsensical.
There's especially no reason to expect that rent should cover 100% of the principal fraction of your mortgage payment. Taxes, maintenance, interest, etc. are pure costs which are understandably passed on to tenants. The principal fraction of a mortgage payment is not a cost, it is building your equity.
If rent is covering all costs and "only" 50% of the principal fraction of your mortgage payment you're still making a profit. Because you're paying, let's say, $1000 of the mortgage payment with your own money, but you're getting a $2000 increase in equity.