A year later and we are yet to see a zoonotic link, but of course it’s the “most plausible scenario”.
The reality is that we will likely never know because it’s not in chinas best interest to allow any real investigation into this.
Right now, over a year later, reality is conforming exactly to what you would expect to happen starting from that hypothesis a year ago. So I don't even understand why you're mentioning it, it's not a logical argument.
> Sep 9, 2003 (CIDRAP News) – Chinese scientists found that animals sold at street markets in Guangdong, China, carried a coronavirus nearly identical to the SARS coronavirus, according to a report published recently in Science.
> The animal viruses were found in Himalayan palm civets and raccoon dogs, which were sold for food in the markets, according to the report. The findings indicate a route of transmission between species but do not reveal whether these animals are the virus's natural reservoir or contracted it from another source, according to the report.
Source [1].
The same thing didn't happen for SARS-CoV2. I believe none of the animals in the wet market has been tested positive for SARS-CoV2 or SARS-CoV2-like viruses [2].
[1] https://www.cidrap.umn.edu/news-perspective/2003/09/animals-...
[2] https://www.technologyreview.com/2021/03/26/1021263/bat-covi...
So why do you expect the same thing to happen now that it's very unlikely, knowing that there is no way to know that these viruses actually are the ancestors and may very well have been cousins of SARS, that would have disappeared if SARS was more contagious.
To find an actual virus that is actually an ancestor of SARS, we had to wait until 2017. What you cited wouldn't meet the criteria you yourself set forth, and for this virus it would be impossible to find on the same timeframe. So I really don't get neither how this validates your point that we would expect to find the zoonitc link in a year, nor even how it would fit into an argument that it's unexpected we didn't find this.
Much later, Dr. Shi discovered that the greatest diversity of similar viruses was in bats. The bat viruses are less closely related to human SARS than the palm civet or raccoon dog viruses; but there's a lot of them, and they look ancestral. We therefore believe that the virus mostly evolved in bats, then was transmitted to the palm civets and raccoon dogs, evolved a little bit more there, and finally was transmitted to humans. This was very important in understand the evolutionary history of the virus, but provided no new information on how humans were first infected.
Knowing one of the classes of host doesn't imply knowing the other:
1. For the original SARS, we found the proximal host within about a year. Much later, Dr. Shi found the reservoir host.
2. For SARS-CoV-2, we knew the reservoir host immediately, because it's closely related to the original SARS. After two years of searching, we still haven't found the proximal host.
If one exists, the proximal animal host of SARS-CoV-2 is probably in China. Since China has seen low human spread (probably more than their official statistics, but clearly far less than the rest of the world), I don't see why you'd expect a human variant to displace the original zoonotic variant. There's also no particular evolutionary pressure for that--a variant evolved in humans might happen to be more transmissible in the proximal host animal, but that's not what's getting selected for when the virus is transmitted between humans.
It's extremely common for people to reach a conclusion, and only then to go looking for research. And, then, to be looking only for research which backs up their claims. Since there is often extensive research backing up both sides of issues, and also because these people rarely actually examine closely the articles they are citing (upon inspection the articles are often speaking about something different, saying the exact opposite thing, etc.), the citations have nearly zero positive value.
As far as I'm concerned this is a complete non-sequitur.
Regardless, I directly addressed a portion of your comment. I believe the portion was meant to borrow some of the creditability of serious journals and give it to Reddit - which is, perhaps, a bad idea, for the reasons I laid out. To label my comment a non-sequitur is ridiculous.
Citing sources is meant to borrow the credibility of the source for elements of your argument. Not to attribute that credibility to the sheet of paper your pen is inking.
[1] https://twitter.com/TheSeeker268/status/1480930691919618051
> while privately discussed that not only it is a possibility, some of them believed it's *highly probable*.
This is what you have written:
> proof positive that the author's mind was *absolutely settled* that it was a lab leak
Judge for yourself. I am not going to respond to any of your comment on this thread. Peace.
Do you have something about Mike Farzan saying, in public, that it was very unlikely that the lab leak theory was true? Or is it then incorrect to say that individual virologists were saying privately one thing and publicly another?