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0 out of 79 cases requiring hospitalization? If we assumed a _generous_ vaccination rate of, say, 80% for SA or GB, then we could say that 16 of these cases are with unvaccinated individuals. So, 0 out of 16 is still pretty good for no hospitalizations.

Or am I figuring this wrong?

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Infection also leads to immunization.

Both GB and SA had considerably higher incidence numbers over the last 12 months than most of the EU, with GB running a very successful vaccination program.

Particularly in SA researches estimate that almost anyone has had one or more infections in the last 24 months.

96% of the participants were fully vaccinated.

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