Cultures where men and women don’t speak the same language (2017)
k-international.com
k-international.com
When they lived in Japan for a while he was frequently the subject of jokes about how "he speaks like a woman" among male Japanese native speakers.
See https://bondlingo.tv/blog/male-and-female-japanese-how-males...
Women nowadays keep assuming I'm gay due to my mannerisms.
How did the mom not realize that her kid was shaving his legs and wearing mascara? I guess it would be one thing if the kid was doing it with intention, but he clearly wasn't. How did she never talk to her son about that?
And it's the unusual which make it to sites like these. ("When dog bites man, it's not news. But when man bites dog, now that is news!")
[1] Or it could be the mother didn't know how to bring it up, or thought she was being supportive of her son's choices.
Could other 11 year olds spot a boy using mascara, a differing from one with thick eyelashes?
Or tell that someone is shaving his legs when there isn't yet even peach fuzz on his chin?
I couldn't, but I'm pretty oblivious to such things.
I think they would just default to making fun of him for wearing mascara. (source: i have thick eyelashes)
> Or tell that someone is shaving his legs when there isn't yet even peach fuzz on his chin?
definitely not.
> I couldn't, but I'm pretty oblivious to such things.
as am i, but i've learned that many other people are oddly skilled at picking up on these things.
Even now, I'm more comfortable if I look at least a little unkempt, as if I work outside with my hands or something. I consciously know it's dumb, but my wife expresses preferences for that unkemptness in me as well.
i think the next step is recognizing that this is a problem that needs to be confronted for both men and women. "toxic masculinity" among men is frequently nowadays talked about and criticized, but i think women are given a bit too much of a pass in holding pretty shitty gendered/trad expectations of men.
An amputee might find strength and toughness in learning to adapt to being without an arm. That doesn't mean we go around encouraging people to cut off their arms. I suspect most amputees would rather not have to have that experience in the first place.
Quoting "Bullying: A Module for Teachers" at https://www.apa.org/education-career/k12/bullying under "Myths about bullying"
> Many beliefs about school bullying are not supported by current research. These are among the most common myths that even some teachers have been known to endorse: ...
> Being a victim builds character.
> Another misconception is that bullying is a normal part of the childhood and adolescence experience, and that surviving peer harassment builds character. In contrast to this view, research findings clearly show that being bullied increases the vulnerabilities of bullied children. For example, we know that children who are passive and socially withdrawn are at a heightened risk of getting bullied and these children become even more withdrawn after incidents of harassment (Schwartz, Dodge, & Coie, 1993).
How many other people suffered, in being part of the same bullying environment from which you drew your character?
I mean, growing up in the US I heard about how French women didn't shave their armpits. As an Italian example, Sophia Loren - https://fineartamerica.com/featured/sophia-loren-on-a-poster... . So it's not like these have been universal Western practices even in my lifetime.
My female Spanish speaking friends use: Holi, Porfi (Hi/Please)
While the male ones use Hola and Porfa (Hi/Please)
Porfa is used only when the context is casual. Porfi is extra-casual and childish but men can use it perfectly in the correct context. An example
> Por favor (Please) let me eat cake.
Not.
> Porfa (pleaaase, more pleading and casual) ...
No way, is for later.
> Porfiiii... (please,please,please... big eyed Cat of Shrek mode)
Well, okay...
> (bingo!)
In Spain using a childish tone by men is perfectly acceptable as long as you turn to the normal mode fast and you have a purpose.
Can be used to express a very close relationship with your audience. As a cute effect.
And much more important, can be used as comic relief.
When mimicking a child you reduce your level of perceived menace to other. Is like saying "Just joking, hehe", therefore you are triggering a calming effect in your public. Holi is the worst offender, but a big tall man talking to an afraid children could use it without any problem to express "I don't want to hurt you". Saying directly "I don't want to hurt you" could sound threatening instead (There is an implicit "I don't want... but I could")
An adult man will not need to calm other adult stranger normally, so in this context can do more harm than good. Never use it all the time, and never in business or formal context because you simply lose leverage.
For what it's worth, few foreigners master Japanese to the level where they could convincingly sound like a tough male/gangster, but unless you actually are in the Yakuza, this ability is not particularly useful. Sonai yuun yattara ippen washi no chinpo shabutte miruka?
Definiteness marking is certainly an area where speakers of languages that don't do that get confused. But I'm not comfortable saying that there are a ton of places in English where you can choose to say "the" or not. In most cases, there's only one correct choice.
Going back over the nouns in my previous paragraph: (marking area[0] speakers[1] languages[2] I ton[0] places English you cases choice[1] [there])
[0] rival article already marked
[1] "the" permissible; presence and absence are both fine
[2] "the" possible; presence may raise eyebrows
The problem with o- is that both men and women use it, but women use it slightly more, and getting that right is hard for a non-native.
The plurals is other dead giveaway. Apparently articles and plurals are very difficult in English, but to me--a native English speaker--they are the most natural thing in the world.
Of course I'm complete shit at the Latin-based languages because I can never get the masculine/feminine words right.
I have gotten some comments about my Chinese being somewhat feminine. I don't speak, so this is all based on text messaging. And Chinese doesn't have overt gender-of-speaker markers, so the issue persists even if you avoid those.
I particularly remember one person commenting that making the agreement / I'm-listening noise in two syllables, 嗯嗯, was "cute" where a man should have just said 嗯. Apparently, this is the kind of thing that will get you.
For what it's worth, in my face-to-face interactions with Chinese men, I got a lot more criticism for the fact that all of the acquaintances I ever mentioned were female than for my choice of words in the rare case where I spoke in Chinese. But again, speaking Chinese is mostly restricted to text messages for me.
Chinese people that I have talked to in Shanghai laughed at me when I said I liked using stickers (表情包)/emoji on WeChat. Apparently, guys are hardly meant to use them and that stickers/emoji are for girls.
Personally, I didn't take heed of their advice nor cared as everybody has their own way of communicating. I use 嗯嗯 stickers whenever I feel like it instead of 嗯. I use 哦 sometimes instead of 嗯 to annoy people and act like I am paying attention.
As an Asian guy, most of my friends/acquaintances in China are female. I have no issues talking to Chinese guys but tend to get on well with females there I guess.
However, back in London where I grew up, almost all of my friends are male. Confused? So am I.. lol.
Never before did the idea of being reborn as a woman in Japan in a next life sound that bad.
Aroused?
Fun fact, katakana (more sharp and right angled lines) used to be for men and hiragana for women (more round and swift).
That is probably why.
"The fact that the Catholic schools are segregated on the basis of gender led to the development of a gendered-generational variant of Irish Sign Language that is still evident (albeit to a lesser degree) today."
Ireland is special that they gender-segretated the Deaf children and the consequence is that women and men have different dialects.
English is definitely on that continuum, by the way. Any significant text (just a few paragraphs) has enough clues to predict a speaker or writer's gender with considerable confidence. This shows up most dramatically with statistical models (including deep learning) but trends with particular grammatical constructs and word choices were noted long ago.
"We analyzed 700 million words, phrases, and topic instances collected from the Facebook messages of 75,000 volunteers, who also took standard personality tests, and found striking variations in language with personality, gender, and age."
https://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal...
If one took an academic text, a short story, a novel, a blog post, or some other more careful piece of writing, it is unclear whether this kind of classifier would work as well.
Is it? I think it's rather interesting. Though not really as much of a language dialect rather than a perspective shift, as if the men and women on average interpret the world differently.
It should be a pretty easy test to do, for those with the trained classifier; I wonder why they haven't reported on doing it.
> we noticed ‘my wife’ and ‘my girlfriend’ emerged as strongly correlated in the male results, while simply ‘husband’ and ‘boyfriend’ were most predictive for females. Investigating the frequency data revealed that males did in fact precede such references to their opposite-sex partner with ‘my’ significantly more often than females. On the other hand, females were more likely to precede ‘husband’ or ‘boyfriend’ with ‘her’ or ‘amazing’ and a greater variety of words, which is why ‘my husband’ was not more predictive than ‘husband’ alone. Furthermore, this suggests the male preference for the possessive ‘my’ is at least partially due to a lack of talking about others' partners.
To disentangle the effect of topic choice from word choice, you'd probably need a controlled study with fixed writing prompts.
Do you have any examples of this?
Not saying I don't believe you, but unless the text contains something very obvious (e.g. "my wife"), I often can't tell if the writer is a man or a woman.
It's much easier to tell in Italian, French or Spanish, for example, all languages where the gender of the speaker is baked into most sentences.
I'm curious, could you give me an example please?
I'm tired (male) -> estoy cansado
I'm tired (female) -> estoy cansada
In French it works the same way, although I'm not confident enough in French to give you an example without making horrible spelling mistakes. But the idea is the same.
I'm tired (male) -> Je suis fatigué
I'm tired (female) -> Je suis fatiguée
Je suis tombé -> Eu sou caído (or Eu sou tombado) Je suis tombée -> Eu sou caída (or Eu sou tombada)
In French, you will say "Je suis content" if you are male, and "Je suis contente" if you are female.
The trailing "e" change the pronunciation: in the male variant, the trailing "t" is silent, while it's not in the female variant because of that "e".
- "amie" is feminin of "ami"
- "enseignante" is feminin of "enseignant"
- "elle s'est engagée" is feminin of "il s'est engagé"
Edit: note that the concept of "gender" in indo-european languages is only vaguely related to the concept of "gender" as in human sexual expression. For example "la nouvelle année scolaire" ("the new school year"), "année" is considered feminin, so "nouvelle" has to be adapted to the feminin, instead of the masculin/neutral "nouveau". But that of course doesn't make any sense if you only consider "gender in languages" to be about male/female.
But this relates to the gender of the friend, not of the speaker.
I am not a French speaker by any means so feel free to correct my words.
There is nothing to correct, you’re right ;)
First, it's true that Romance languages use gender in this manner. I was just pointing out that the specific example chosen didn't show this. The example has nothing to do with the gender of the speaker, but with the gender of the object under discussion; it's similar to you saying "she" or "her" when referring to a woman; it enables me to make no assumptions about your own gender.
Second:
> Anything the speaker would say about themselves would have to be gendered accordingly.
In Spanish there are careful ways to avoid making assertions about yourself in a gendered manner. They are a bit more roundabout, but can be done. My point is not that this is the most natural way of speaking, just pointing out that it's technically not true that you must always make gendered assertions about yourself.
Example:
Instead of saying "I'm very tired", "estoy muy cansado" (gendered male language) I can say "tiredness overcomes me", "el cansancio me invade", hiding my gender. Yes, it's a bit artificial but not so uncommon I have never read it. So in Spanish you can make assertions about yourself without betraying your gender. Don't know about French or other Romance languages, but it wouldn't surprise me to know you can employ similar tricks. It's probably harder in Spanish than in English to hold a conversation longer than a couple of sentences while hiding your gender; it will start sounding very unnatural, I grant you this.
https://www.diva-portal.org/smash/get/diva2:1023448/FULLTEXT...
In the U.S., the normalization of gay marriage has involved a lot of cultural strife over the past few decades.
One may still encounter cliques in the U.S. that refuse to accept grammatical constructs such as "her wife" for various reasons.
Playing "guess why" is the fun part :) I'm sure there are other tools available now and I'd love to hear of them if people are aware of them!
This kind of question reminds me of "if a lion could speak, we could not understand him"
English is at the de-grammarised end of the spectrum. There are gendered clues in English, but they're (mostly) not baked into the grammar. The differences are more about specific idioms and expressions that one gender is more likely to use, and they're really a kind of variation on other subgroup slangs - like teen slang, other age-related indicators.
Most languages have far more obvious grammatical distinctions. The Romance languages have obvious gender in the grammar, but it's... just there. It doesn't do much except to indicate that the subject or object is male or female. Beyond that, there are some rather random associations of gender to specific nouns.
Fully distinct dialects/languages are incredibly rare and are often artificial and/or more likely to be created by a subculture than as a direct result of gender differences.
Example: English has Polari, which was entertainer/street slang and often used in gay subcultures. It also has Cockney, Estuary, Northern, Scottish, Urban, and others - all differentiated by culture.
I can't speak for all Romance languages but my native Spanish: it's true that we have gendered nouns (most if not all of them, I think) but it has nothing to do with the speaker, so it's not a language for men or women. For example, a chair ("silla") is always female, regardless of whether it's me saying it (a male) or my mother. It's a bit like how ships in English are a "she" regardless of who's speaking, only more enforced and for all nouns.
grammatical gender of a person == physical gender of that person
But compared to the differences in, e.g., Japanese that some people here are discussing, this seems rather minor.The root "obrigad" sounds a lot like the English word "obligate". If this is more than just a coincidence, then a more direct translation is "I am obliged" rather than "thank you". Said this way it makes a lot of sense why the verb is determined by the speaker.
As an aside, I don't think Spanish has a word that's quite like "obliged". Maybe "endeudado", but that's just "in debt" and is not particularly about favors.
I am handsome.
I am beautiful.
I told my girlfriend she was handsome the other day and she objected strenuously.
https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/355908/why-is-ha...
I did it myself: Eu fiz eu mesmo/Eu fiz eu mesma.
And most adjectives. Actually, "obrigado" is "obliged" so the phrase "much obliged" is equivalent to the Portuguese "muito obrigado".
Apparently not:
I was just observing this general effect is probably true, to some degree, big or small, for most languages. It's probably a little more pronounced in Japanese than English. In neither case is it anywhere distinct enough to call it a separate dialect for men and women.
> Most languages have far more obvious grammatical distinctions.
Grammatical gender like French or Arabic is pretty unusual, really. It's common in the Indo-European and Semitic languages, which are prominent by number of speakers, but grammatical gender is fairly rare when surveying the world's language families as a whole. It's completely absent from many of them. The whole Sino-Tibetan language family (including modern Chinese), for example. They get along fine with a single third person pronoun (in speech) and no grammatical gender.
(Edit: reduced absoluteness, because lack of grammatical gender feature can be found in some Indo-European languages)
But...that's gender, linguistically speaking.
[1] http://sites.la.utexas.edu/persian_online_resources/pronouns...
It's clear that many factors contribute to one's choice of language.
In the mid-1950s people studied the differences between the English spoken by the upper class ("U") and middle-class ("non-U") in the UK - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/U_and_non-U_English .
In the US, a Black American may grow up with speaking African-American Vernacular English (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/African-American_Vernacular_En...), and code switch to speak a more general American dialect.
My freshman year roommate spoke more "Southern" when on the phone to family than when talking to others in the dorm.
The language of a scientific monograph is quite different than the language of an HN comment, and being able to write in that style suggests an academic training.
So I'm not surprised that gender can also be a factor in word choice. Indeed, a friend of mine who reads romance novels claims a common difference between male and female authors is how they describe clothing.
If you want to describe all of those as different languages ... I've long given up trying to understand the differences between 'dialect' and 'language' (much less 'sociolect', 'ethnolect', 'stylistic register', etc) so go right ahead.
But I'm hesitant to believe that "Any significant text" predicts a specific author's gender "with considerable confidence."
I know of several cases where people tried and failed to guess an author's gender. Robert Silverberg, for example, found "something ineluctably masculine about Tiptree's writing"; James Tiptree, Jr. was the male pseudonym of a female author. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_Tiptree_Jr.)
Searching Google Scholar, I find articles like https://arxiv.org/ftp/arxiv/papers/2109/2109.13890.pdf saying:
> However, other gaps need to be addressed as well, including that no method of classifying age or gender—both of which are aspects of author profiling—that also considers the genre or nature of the analyzed text has been widely endorsed. Beyond that, to the best of our knowledge, no research has involved surveying or comparing the different approaches used in author profiling. In fact, current knowledge about the task is largely based on small-scale experiments conducted to find a reliable classification method with a near-zero error rate. In order to use forensic authorship profiling as admissible evidence in courts, the proposed methods must have about 100% accuracy. The average accuracy of good proposed methods are ranging from 70-85% [5]–[9]. However, the proposed methods still suffer from low accuracy.
That suggests that the "with considerable confidence" you refer to is on a population level, and not a per-person level. Rather like how, with considerable confidence, I can say that in general men are taller than women, even though many women are taller than many men.
The imitation game is adversarial (both players try to convince the interrogator that they are the woman, or the human). GP was talking about non-adversarial settings.
"Warm Worlds and Otherwise" is a significant text.
I'll grant this qualifier for purposes of discussion. In that case:
- if someone writes using adversarial methods, can that person's gender still be detected? How much text is required?
- Here are male authors who wrote romances using a female pseudonym - https://www.goodreads.com/list/show/104973.Male_Authors_Who_... . Can we presume they used other adversarial methods? I do.
- How many people are trained to write using an adversarial style?
(Quoting the top Google hit for "write like a man" at https://www.timsquirrell.com/blog/2017/3/29/write-like-a-man... : """Teachers often make up for this by telling their female students, either explicitly or implicitly, to "write like a man". This means that they should write confidently, "objectively", not hedging their arguments, coming down boldly on one side of an issue, etc.""")
- Are all gender mis-identifications due to the authors using deliberate adversarial techniques?
Polish does this too.
Japanese does have gendered first-person pronouns, though the textbook standard one "watashi" is neutral. In Japanese, pronouns in general (including fp) are used less than English; they are only used when there is ambiguity, names are often preferred to pronouns, and in casual speech it is even OK to refer to yourself by your name (like Jimmy from Seinfeld.)
In the textbook, Japanese doesn't really have gendered patterns to verb conjugations. Verbs are rather conjugated based on level of formality, for example "itte-ru", "itte-imasu", "itte-orimasu" all mean "I am going" in ascending degree of politeness. There are also impolite/brash-sounding forms "iku-zo", "ikou-ze", "ike", etc. which tend to be said more by men (or teenage boys) but women can use them too, it's just not "lady-like".
That said--it is fair to observe that in film for example samurai and geishas speak essentially two different sounding languages, more so than a knight versus a princess. Men are expected to be rugged and use "rugged" words; women are expected to be beautiful and use "beautiful" words. There are definitely words, speech, and tonal patterns which are more masculine and feminine, but in anime for example these differences are exaggerated far beyond real-world conversational norms.
Yes, and not only in anime. The stereotyping of language by gender, occupation, social class, etc. is pervasive in Japanese popular culture. The linguist Satoshi Kinsui calls this practice yakuwarigo [1].
It also exists in translations into Japanese from English and other languages, with dialogue in novels being rendered into stereotyped forms, even though the original dialogue was not marked for gender and Japanese people often do not speak that way in real life, either. I worked as a Japanese-to-English translator for many years, and those gendered translations in the other direction always felt strange to me.
I’ve discussed this issue with Japanese translators several times over the years. Most of them said that they were uncomfortable about using those stereotyped forms but that their publishers and, they presumed, the readers expected it. Times are changing, though. Just last month, the Asahi Shimbun ran a series of articles [2, 3, 4; paywalled and in Japanese] about changing attitudes toward gender stereotyping in translations into Japanese.
In real language use, sociolinguistic differences often vary by the individual and the situation. I’ve known Japanese women who never—except maybe when being sarcastic—use the pronouns or sentence-ending forms that are typical of female characters in manga and anime. The faculty meetings at the university where I now teach are conducted in very formal Japanese, and I have never noticed anyone use an expression in those meetings that seemed typically masculine or feminine. Real-life professors don’t talk like professors in manga, either.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yakuwarigo
[2] https://digital.asahi.com/articles/ASPCB6KD1PBTUPQJ009.html
[3] https://digital.asahi.com/articles/DA3S15110092.html
[4] https://digital.asahi.com/articles/ASPCD3FPHPBPUPQJ014.html
• Men can drop k, often causing vowel fusion and modification
• Men drop d/n in the two words dõ ‘a’ and adõ ‘something’
• Various irregular vocabulary differences
For instance, female dɪkarə̃ kadɪɗakakre corresponds to male dɪarə̃ adɪɗakakre ‘I will take it off’.
[0] Ribeiro, Eduardo Rivail. 2012. A grammar of Karajá. (Doctoral dissertation, University of Chicago; x+291pp.)
They both can use the other language of course, but as a second language and with different accents.
To add to this: hasidic men will often use Hebrew/Aramaic phrases used in the Talmud or its commentaries, whereas women, who are not permitted to study these materials, don't.
Some women will choose to do so as adults, but at that point it doesn't become part of the vocabulary.
If you mean that they believe themselves to be permitted to, this is definitely not the case. Talmud (ie Mishna/Gemara) outside of "agadata" is considered off-limits to women by all Haredi communities I'm aware of. In the past all Torah study was considered forbidden, but in the last few hundred years leniencies were found to enable some amount of Jewish religious education for girls. This was quite an innovation and was not taken lightly. Today, in some communities the original texts are all forbidden, but in most the Written Law (Tanach) is permitted why the Oral Law (Talmud) is not. Halacha (practical law) is usually allowed, as is theology, philosophy and ethics (Mussar, Chassidus, Rambam's "Shmoneh Prakim", etc)
Bottom line: women don't use scholarly jargon because they are intentionally and expressly excluded from such activities.
In hasidic communities women learn mostly Tanach (the Old Testament), Halacha (practical laws) and Mussar (roughly: ethics).
They absolutely do not learn the Talmud or its commentaries. In hasidic circles learning the Talmud – or any kind of in-depth abstract study – is said to lead women to "lightheadedness" aka promiscuity.
<talmud>
The Mishna (Sotah 3.4) cites two Tannaitic opinions - the first says that a man is obligated to teach his daughter Torah so that she can understand the impact of the Sotah waters, the second counters that anyone who teaches his daughter Torah has taught her promiscuity.
The Gemara (Sotah 21b) clarifies that women who study Torah can become "clever" or "sneaky". Rashi (ibid, 11th century) explains that understanding the laws and loopholes enables them to hide their promiscuity and get away with things they wouldn't otherwise get away with.
For context the Mishna also comments that women are given to promiscuity by their nature, to the point where they would prefer promiscuity and a little wealth to a lot of wealth without promiscuity.
</talmud>
A few points from me:
* The context here is not studying theology at all, but legal topics, which is what most of the Talmud consists of. Only a small portion of the Talmud is theology, religion, and philosophy
* The Talmud is an anthology of many different opinions and ideas, often conflicting one another. There are passages in the Talmud that can be interpreted in a feminist light, but this is clearly not one of them. There is a lot of literature around this passage, and no small amount of controversy, but for the context of this thread - contemporary Haredi communities have interpreted this as forbidding women from studying the legal discourse aspects of the Torah while permitting the "lighter" topics, including theology. Other communities and movements interpret this differently or ignore it completely.
* My experience is that although the text cites promiscuity as the reason for the prohibition, that's not really what people think it's about, at least not today. If you ask most Haredi men why their wives are not allowed to study Talmud, I don't think they'll cite the promiscuity risk. Certainly not if you ask the women. Instead you'll probably get an explanation about gender roles, domains of authority, perhaps some narrative about men's brains and women's brains, maybe something about tradition, or just a shrug. If they're particularly learned they'll quote you this Talmud passage.
Similarly, in yeshiva communities in the US men and women typically pronounce certain Hebrew vowels differently. I'm not sure what the historical context here is, but this always fascinated me. In any case, women and men speak in noticeably different ways about religious concepts, to the point where adopting the opposite gender's pronunciation stands out as "weird".
In addition to pronunciation differences, using more Aramaic and certain Yiddish phrases is male-coded in this community.
Mother-in-law-speech, where the language you use changes when you speak to your in-laws. There's an Australian language that has clicks, but only when talking to the mother in law.
I'm not sure that's quite right. Europe is typically divided in 3: Slavic, Germanic and Romance. By my count the population of Slavic countries adds up to 280 million of Europe's 750 million people.
How is this different than English? For one, English relies heavily on the copula (is/to be) for statements of fact ("it is raining" vs "I see rain"), and secondly it's baked into the grammar. Stating something without evidence would sound just as wrong as "Me fail English? That's unpossible!"
The one exception might be the "uncertainty suffix" -ish.
Roughly, its thesis is that men typically interact with others in a competitive way, as if interactions are about status in a hierarchy; whereas typically women would prefer to interact in a cooperative way, where interactions are about belonging/intimacy. -- The different perspectives lend themselves to framing the same sets of actions in different ways.
-- The preface makes an interesting point: to the extent that differences in cultural attitudes leads to misunderstanding/conflict, it's worth trying to understand what those cultural differences are.
Me: pulls up Google Translate
You could argue though that printing and schools are part of the human evolution.
Same with Japanese. There are some proudly, stubbornly distinct phrases in Kansai-ben and other regions, but the choice of the Meiji-era government to only teach Standard Tokyo Japanese in schools has had the desired homogenising effect.
Even as recently as the 1940s, there are well-documented cases of teens from the south of England, sent to the north of England, to work in mines for the war effort, who simply could not understand the variety of English being spoken around them. Radio and TV smoothed out all those differences.
Fun bit of alt-history pondering - China was the most powerful single nation on Earth at the time of the dawn of the industrial revolution - it's quite plausible that they missed out on that lead just because of a couple of shallow whitewater sections of the Yangtze river that made bringing their coal by barge to the coastal cities impractical.
There was a Chinese industrial revolution in, IIRC, the 1100s and/or 1200s. They were producing something on the order of 100,000 tons of iron a year, with the whole industrial revolution "using the outputs to improve the efficiency" cycle starting to happen.
And then the bureaucrats shut it down, because "the wrong kind of people" were getting rich from it.
They could have owned the world. They could have been the ones with the technological and manufacturing dominance. And instead they threw it away to keep their society stratified in the way they thought it should be. The Chinese "century of humiliation" was caused by that decision back in the 1200s.