Is it wrong to note 100m winners are always black?
bbc.co.uk
bbc.co.uk
The author seems to conclude it's wrong to think race is responsible for so many 100m winners being black because the assumption is erroneous. But only through making and testing that erroneous assumption (as the author did) are we able to determine it has nothing to do with skin color and more to do with a specific geographical heritage. So I disagree with the author on that point.
He then tries to tie that to a study that shows "black names" on resumes are 50% less likely to get call backs from potential employers. But those employers who discriminate are making an assumption they've clearly not tested (that people are worse employees based on their skin color)
So the real issue here is people who don't test their conclusions and there's nothing wrong with drawing an initial conclusion as long as you test it against actual facts.
Hah! I think you're describing about 80% of content of sites like HN ;).
The relevance is the author is saying "Don't draw race based conclusions because they are unfair by definition". But if you prevent yourself from drawing the conclusion you can't evaluate it.
Put in more human terms: People who are afraid of being called racist can't be intellectually honest.
Also, just to make the point, racism tends to flourish when people who aren't racist avoid such questions. Right now the most potent rallying point for racists is "The government doesn't want you to know white people are superior". This claim seems to hold weight to people because most scientists are afraid to do race based studies. So by not disproving the racists assumption we actually strengthen it.
To address your second point: As a natural scientist (as in endlessly curious) I often wonder about genetic differences in racist and how they effect outward traits. From a public policy perspective, I totally understand why most scientists and government officials wouldn't touch those questions with a 10 foot pole. There is just far more potential for negative consequences than positives.
This is the thing missing in the violent debate about studies showing that black people have a lower average IQ: even if it's true, any specific individual (or even specific sub-group) may still have a very high IQ and deserve respect and success just as much as a non-black person with such a high IQ.
Draw a set of circles. The big one is all humans. The little one is 100m finalists.
Outside the finalists, you're drawing two concentric circles. The smaller of the two is Nandi. The larger is sub-Saharan Africans, or what much of the world refers to as "black".
First: yes, all 100m winners are "black". More specifically, they're among the better Nandi runners. But as we're noting, Nandis are a proper subset of sub-Saharan Africans, or blacks. So ... yes, the first inference ("100m winners are black") is accurate, just not complete.
The other interesting thing to note is this: humanity originated in Africa, and migrated from there to the rest of the planet in successive waves. Genetic diversity within Africa is greater than in the rest of the planet. For the most part / as a general rule. You'll find this is typically true of origin / diaspora populations, human, animal, vegetable, or even technological.
So: yes, there's considerable genetic variation among various populations. There's more in Africa. And, at least based on empirical evidence, if you want to be a good sprint runner, it's a considerable benefit to have ancestry that traces to a specific valley in Kenya.
As to considering all "Blacks" to be genetically uniform or similar: no, that's not valid.
The other discussions of the article are largely red herrings.
Despite specific characteristics, my point about genetic diversity within African populations as a whole should stand.
Names are really powerful. The same is true of email addresses; how many people here can honestly say that they would treat an email from purpledinosaur28@aol.com the same way as they treat an email from john.smith@gmail.com?
Focusing on the name, which the person can't control, instead of on the person's accomplishments (resume), which the person can absolutely control, would seem to be an indicator of bias.
I don't think your point holds up.
And sure, it would be better to ignore names and focus on a resume -- but people rely on subconscious cues all the time. If your only goal is to find good candidates as quickly as possible, a subconscious cue which is usually correct works to your advantage -- whether it's "people with degrees from Harvard are stuck-up snobs", "people who write their resumes in LaTex are good coders", or "people with weird names like 'jewyl' are useless".
There's a point where the cost of gathering information exceeds its value. Unfortunately, that point sometimes comes halfway through reading a resume.
To me it just sounds like racism covered up.
First thing we all need to do is be willing to flat out admit our own faults without any rationalizations. That's the only way we'll ever be able to overcome it.
It is well known that you can put whatever name on your resume you want. It is not until after you are hired that you have to submit documentation.
There is a freakonomics discussion about the power of name choice in "Super Freakonomics", CH6, "Perfect Parenting, Part II; or: Would a Roshanda by Any Other Name Smell as Sweet?" which hints at this ~ http://freakonomicsbook.com/freakonomics/chapter-excerpts/ch... and http://www.slate.com/id/2116449/ though the message I got was the signaling the name gave to others & the recipient of the name mattered more.
Latoya and Tyrone are common black names, and they're also strongly associated with lower socioeconomic level because lots of blacks are in a lower socioeconomic level. The sorts of professional, educated black families that send their kids to good schools and from there to good jobs don't name them these lower-class names.
Edit: just to explain a bit more: my point is that Tyrone and Latoya are not indicative of lower class, any more than simply being black is. Thus a bias against those names is a bias against black in general.
I'd bet you'd see a similar bias against lower-class white names like Bubba or Leroy or most of the names here: http://babynamesworld.parentsconnect.com/forum/topic88623.ht...
If it is purely economic, you probably also wouldn't see as much bias against black-sounding names that don't have negative connotations such as Michael Jackson (it might get a smirk, but if it is indeed about economic bias, the name of a prestigious black man should be a good demonstration).
Lets take this a bit further. For your resume to not be biased against from the start, you have to not have a "typical" black name; essentially erasing any indication of your race from your resume. How is that not a bias against the race?
You guys are seriously straining logic here.
You are forgetting one not-so-minor fact that the resumes were _identical_ to the white ones'. Are you saying that the recipients just looked at the names and didn't even bother to read the resumes??
Fighting one's prejudices is really hard.
it's not about race in this case, but assuming --even if with the back of the mind, how the candidate would fit into the cultural aspect of the organization.
Imagine a guy in a organization that has a heavy crunch time every friday until late if needed. in the several interviews when he mention that, he noticed that the group of people that turn down the position because of this is of some cultural group. The next time he is hiring, even if only on the back of his mind, he will go past the candidates that have names indicating that said cultural group, because his brain will fast forward to all the time wasted interviewing and then being turned down. it's not like the guy has anything against that group.
In the article, the point made is far worse than this example. From a moral point of view. as it hints to a macro-social preconception on race.
The researchers also found that although high-quality
"white" candidates were preferred to low-quality "white"
candidates, the relative quality of "black" CVs made no
difference whatsoever. It was as if employers saw three
categories - high-quality white, low-quality white and
black candidates.
We know that the "black" candidates got some responses,
and we know that the "black" CVs did have differences
in quality.So on what basis were the employers choosing the black candidates on the occasions that they did choose a black candidate? Randomly?
It's a big anomaly in the experiment I think, and should be explained somehow.
Using the names suggested by the article, suppose Tyrone is a high-quality black candidate and Latoya is a low-quality black candidate. The experiment shows that employers--when they do choose a "black" candidate--will choose Tyrone and Latoya equally often.
The employer supposedly has no preference for the better CV among the black applicants.
Does that make any sense to you?
It makes me suspicious of the whole experiment.
Because they had a black name that is the first and only label they get.
The employers were not merely classifying people into groups, they wanted to actually hire someone.
If in the employer's mind, all black applicants were bad, the employer would hire a white applicant, or wouldn't hire anyone, or would keep looking.
But that's not what happened. Sometimes the employer called one of the black applicants for an interview. Even if the employer thought that all the black applicants were bad, the logical thing to do would be to go through the CVs again to try to discern some differences in the pool of black applicants before you waste time on an interview.
But the experiment says that the employers found all black applicants to be equally bad.
Then my question is: On what basis did the employer pick the black applicant to call for an interview?
It's as if the employer is saying, "We prefer to interview the best white applicants. Sometimes we interview a black applicant, but in those cases good or bad doesn't matter -- we'll interview a random black applicant."
It doesn't add up. Either the experiment is flawed or there is a subtle explanation for this anomaly.
And I think all you need for evidence that this is true is ... this study! The failure of an employer to interview enough black candidates is considered by many to be prima facie evidence of racism. (Just look at the comments here. Likewise, giving more failing grades to black students is racist.) So-many people are desperate to avoid looking racist, and black students/employees/etc. get a lot of little advantages as a result. Some of these are harmless (well performing black guy gets first crack at a new position, rather than well performing white guy), but some of them aren't (now-poorly-performing black guy doesn't get fired/demoted from new position).
Or everybody's racist.
Assuming that this success is driven by genes rather than environment, there is a rather obvious inference to make - black people are naturally better sprinters than white people.
But here's the thing. This inference is not merely false - it is logically flawed.
If we assume that sprinting performance is genetic (and realizing that there are lots of other factors), and we assume that the best 100m sprinters are consistently black (realizing that "black" may or may not be a clearly defined genetic category), is it really a fallacy to say that black people are better sprinters?
Logically, so long as the prevalence of winners is greater than the percentage of the population defined as black, I would think it has to follow. The winning sprinters are also strong, lean, and young. Would it be a fallacy to say that "strong, lean and young runners make better sprinters"?
The obvious fallacy is to conclude that all blacks are better sprinters. But it feels like the article goes far beyond this, and wants to redefine "better" as incompatible with "more likely to excel". And pointing out that Americans and Jamaicans tend to excel seems to run counter to the part where he asks us to assume that the success is driven by genes.
Hmm. His book "Bounce" sounds interesting, though. I've requested it from the library. And oddly, I found 4 year old version of essentially the same article (minus the reference to resumes, adding reference to "yellow" domination at table tennis, and advertising a different book) here: http://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/comment/columnists/guest_co...
Yes. Data on the Olympics gives very little information on whether the average black person is a better sprinter than the average white person.
It is not, however, a fallacy to say that it is highly likely that the next top sprinter will be black. (If anyone disagrees with this claim, I'm willing to offer good odds on the race of the next Olympic sprinter medalists.)
Honestly, I'm finding the author's exposition to be rather confused. He seems to conflate two logically distinct propositions ("the best $x come from group $Y" and "a random $y in $Y has a higher probability of outperforming a random $z in $Z") for reasons I can't fathom.
The alternative would be to presume that the variance of sprinting ability with the black population is greater than that of the white. I'd want to see some reason that this is true before presuming it. This also gets us back to the furor regarding Lawrence Summers dismissal from Harvard, which does imply that there some things that are simply "wrong to note".
In fact, I'd speculate that across the US population, black sprinting ability is probably lower than that of whites. Black women are disproportionately overweight/obese and are likely to lower the average for blacks. Looking solely at olympic level data points would never reveal this.
(As far as I'm aware, this latter effect is minimally related to genetics.)
That's the same point I'm making, but I come to the opposite conclusion. I think that in the absence of contradictory information one should prefer simple inferences to complex ones (Occam rephrased). Thus I'd look first to the mean, then to the variance, and only then consider that only one of the groups has a multi-modal distribution.
I do think our "overcompensation" for race affects our conclusions here (mine included). If one were to find that the winners shared some other trait other than skin color, I don't think there would be nearly the same desire to find alternative explanations. But this doesn't mean that these alternatives are not useful to consider, and quite possibly correct.
It is a question of semantics here. The general and a vague inferred claim is that "Black people tend to be better sprinters than other races". If that means that "There exist black people that run better than any people of all other races", then this statement is verifiably true: just look at the Olympic charts. Now, if statement is that "If you pick up a random black person and put them in a race against a person of other race (no pun intended), black person is more likely to win" - it would be a logical fallacy to make that statement based just on the fact that Olympic winners in running are all black.
This doesn't prove what he thinks it proves.
This is the exact same argument: There is more variation within male heights than there is between the male & female average height. This is true - the difference between the average male height and female height is only a few inches, and it is quite a bit smaller than an interval which covers 90% of men. But, this has nothing to do with his point. The height difference between males and females is still relevant to us, even though the in-group variation for males & females is also high.
tl;dr: male height variation is much bigger than the gap between male & female heights, yet we still think the male-female height gap is a real & meaningful phenomenon.
[1] http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_genetic_diversity:_Lewont...
After edit: the kind first reply to my comment here mentions a possible study design for looking at what might influence athletic success among athletes from one place or another. A "genetically sensitive" design for such a study would have to consider quite a few other issues, not least actual individual genes, which have been surprisingly neglected in genetic research over the years. (Rather than actually looking at genes of each individual in a study, which continues to be a generally expensive and occasionally error-prone enterprise, most previous genetic studies of human behavioral characteristics have been based on proxy assemblages of genes, by studying closely related family members, or in the best cases monozygotic twins.)
Readers who haven't seen this pair of links before, which I share fairly often here on HN because they are by world famous human behavioral geneticists, may be surprised by what they learn from reading about what twin studies can and cannot say about genetic influences on human behavior.
http://people.virginia.edu/~ent3c/papers2/Articles%20for%20O...
http://people.virginia.edu/~ent3c/papers2/Articles%20for%20O...
Meanwhile other readers have commented, and tying in what I've written (and linked to) above to what several comments here say, a common fallacy comes from assuming that "race" (as socially defined in one place or another) has anything much at all to do with what genes one would find in a particular individual. Serious geneticists are actually some of the leading scientists in suggesting that in medicine, law, and education we should pay less attention to "race" than formerly, to avoid inherent cognitive biases in explaining individual differences.
It's not yet complete and is quite lengthy, but it's one of the most fascinating things I've read in some time. While the title seems to make the article focuses solely on Olympic Weightlifting, but the main focus is much more general, and is about uncovering recurring patterns between countries who dominate various sports.
[1] http://www.bodyrecomposition.com/training/why-the-us-sucks-a...
Whether a country excels at Weightlifting seems in large part to be a function of whether there is a more popular sport in that country. So in the Carribean potential lifters become sprinters, in the USA they become NFL players, in Australia rugby and AFL players and so on.
Consider- many modern American and Jamaican blacks are descendants of slaves. To arrive in the Americas those slaves had to survive a horrendous journey across the Atlantic in a slave ship (a far more physically challenging experience than the one experienced by the average European colonist on his trip across the ocean). They then had to survive the physical challenges associated with being a slave. The net result is that descendants of these slaves have a genetic profile that was passed down from the strongest survivors, making them physically stronger than either African blacks or non-black Americans.
"Our tendency to generalise rests on a deeper fallacy - the idea that 'black' refers to a genetic type. We put people of dark skin in a box labelled black and assume that a trait shared by some is shared by all." I'm no geneticist, but I wonder then how the author would explain the seemingly racist drug BiDil, which is more effective for African Americans?
A more difficult question to answer - that can't be explained away with extreme examples - would be why the regular professional sports (e.g. NFL, NBA) have a disproportionate number (compared to population) of black players. May have nothing to do with genetics at all, but would be much more interesting to read about than this article.
I stopped asking because people thought it was racist. It always baffled me.
I mean, you've got a guy like Peyton Manning for example. He's not an athletic guy relative to other NFL players, but historically he has this incredible hand-eye coordination and mind for the strategy of the game. No one was going to look at Manning and say, "Hey you know, you have a great arm and are frighteningly smart at this game, but we could use your slow clumsy ass at running back."
To me quarterbacks and pitchers specialize into that position because oftentimes their other physical gifts don't even come close to their arms. In other words, I'm pretty sure there are plenty of black QBs out there in high school football teams who have the potential to be just as great as Tom Brady, Peyton Manning, etc., but coaches are going to want the speed and power elsewhere.
I thought this article was pointing out how racial prejudice around 'athleticism and blacks' was out right false. So then you justify a separate athletic ability using race again...
That's what the article wants to do, but it doesn't succeed. We know that elite "black" athletes are the best. Maybe the average black athlete is worse than the average white, but there's no evidence of that presented. It could be that blacks have a larger standard deviation, or it could be that blacks have a higher mean. The author couldn't be bothered to actually try and answer that question.
Anyway, it seems that certain ethnic groups have long been perceived to gravitate towards certain athletic functions.
In the American population there is actually a genetic difference: For any given height, the average black Americans has longer legs, while the average white American has a taller chest and longer arms.
The other sport where this has a significant influence is swimming.
I do think you would have less discrimination that way, though. I bet you could accomplish similar things if resumes focused less on names and more on accomplishments.
If your last point were true we would see world class sprinters coming out of one of the West African nations. I can't think of any.
Not everyone loves Gladwell's writing, but I found the article interesting and thought-provoking.