Do people really write f(x) = O(g(x)) ?
Because that doesn't seem to make sense. It could make sense if we read O as an operator (so f is the upper bound on g, but the definition is the other way around) but saying that a function is equal to an upper bound is just odd, even leaving aside the fact that the definition uses "f(x)", i.e., the application of f, to express the function itself.