> to use force (up to and including deadly force) to defend oneself against an intruder

Perhaps only one place (Texas) uses this to justify regaining possession of property, which is what the GP was talking about.

Also:

> At most the Castle Doctrine is an affirmative defense for individuals inevitably charged with criminal homicide, not a permission or pretext to commit homicide.

How can the castle doctrine possibly be applied to most catalytic converter thefts???