N = 1500
One sample had 79-86 out of 750 hospitalized, and the other had 117-123 out of 750.
Does that seem sufficient to demonstrate statistical significance?
Edit: found the actual numbers in the study
79 [11%] of 741 vs 119 [16%] of 756
One sample had 79-86 out of 750 hospitalized, and the other had 117-123 out of 750.
Does that seem sufficient to demonstrate statistical significance?
Edit: found the actual numbers in the study
79 [11%] of 741 vs 119 [16%] of 756
p value was 0.9972 and the power was 92.40% it's a significant result.
"Variant B’s conversion rate (11.47%) was 30.08% lower than variant A’s conversion rate (16.40%). You can be 99% confident that variant B will perform worse than variant A."
That seems problematic. Did they stop the study because they had achieved statistical significance?
Is science allowed to research only one substance for specific purpose at any time to sufficiently avoid p-hacking for you?
Also if I read correctly they got >0.60 not >0.05
To be more precise without being too formal:
If there truly were no difference between them, you could be 99% confident that you would not get a result like this.