edit: swapped A and B by mistake, see comment below
So what’s the failure mode? 50% I guess?
Or does it mean that 75% of people that were hospitalised for any cause, and that then subsequently tested positive, were found to be unvaccinated?
There's a big difference between the two. It would still be interesting if it were the latter, as that might indicate vaccination was somehow protecting the vaccinated against hospitalisation for causes that weren't immediately identifiable as being related to Coronavirus. I mean, it could be the case that the unvaccinated were suffering cognitive effects of infection that made them more likely to be in car crashes, for example.
Yes, it means exactly this.
It's gotten so bad that the military was called in to restore peace.
The doctors there were on a news segment, completely burnt out and in tears, saying that 0% of their COVID patients are vaccinated and they're overrun.
So I believe this metric.
Similarly, I had a fever + 4 days of 20 hours of sleep after receiving the second Pfizer-Biontech dose.
I mean, you don't want anyone left behind. But if you're forced to leave someone behind, the question becomes "who?". If you have one emergency bed and in comes a drunk driver from an accident, shortly followed by the pregnant woman he ran over, I'm not a big fan of "first come, first served".
If and when doctors are forced into heinous choices, I'd think such considerations should play a role - for society allocating scarce resources, at the very least.
I may personally agree with the exact situation you describe, but relying on "common sense" breaks fast at scale. If the doctor(s) making the call are devout adherents of some religious sect, would you prefer that they prioritize the drunken driver above the pregnant woman who needs an abortion of the child that was conceived out of bedlock?
Or denying care to the heroin addict ODing?
IMO, completely removing moral judgment from the medical evaluation process is a net positive.
This doesn't have to mean "first come, first serve", and I assume it doesn't in most places.
Sorry for being sceptical, but I've seen similar claims propagated on twitter "hospital so full, that gunshot victims are turned away". It was untrue both on accounts of being full and there being any gunshot victims.
https://www.businessinsider.com/how-china-managed-build-enti...
> During April 4–July 17, a total of 569,142 (92%) COVID-19 cases, 34,972 (92%) hospitalizations, and 6,132 (91%) COVID-19–associated deaths were reported among persons not fully vaccinated,
In the same period
> Full vaccination coverage increased from 19% to 54% https://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/volumes/70/wr/mm7037e1.htm
https://www.trouw.nl/zorg/wie-zijn-de-gevaccineerden-die-toc...
Dutch obviously.
Without a doubt, most of the approved COVID-19 vaccines are extremely effective at preventing hospitalization/death due to SARS-CoV-2 infections, this has been shown time and time again across the world.
Of course, that is why I was asking.
The US are at 66.6 and 57.6, but there are huge disparities between states, while vermont is at 70,8% full vax WV is at 41.
Loosely translated from : https://www.rivm.nl/covid-19-vaccinatie/cijfers-vaccinatiepr...
( Dutch CDC )
Estimated single jab rate for 18+ : 87,1%, 83,5% 2 jabs.
12+, 84,9% one jab, 81,4% 2 jabs.
This is countrywide.
I don't know if the difference comes from "our world in data" using older data, or because they also count children under 12.
Source: https://www.rivm.nl/covid-19-vaccinatie/cijfers-vaccinatiepr...
With enough samples we can start for the next differentiator, if one exists.
https://www.mdr.de/nachrichten/sachsen/corona-krankenhaus-in...
https://klinikum-darmstadt.de/aktuelles-news/ungeimpfte-coro...
https://www.dkgev.de/dkg/presse/details/mehr-als-90-prozent-...
https://www.br.de/nachrichten/bayern/corona-fast-nur-ungeimp...
How many among patients hospitalized for covid in ICU and not-ICU are vaccinated ?