Penguin is no longer the owner of the copyright to The Tao of Pooh
benjaminhoffauthor.com
benjaminhoffauthor.com
Translating a thousands-of-years-old text as if the words of the time had their modern meanings is a ridiculous oversight that could not possibly have gone unnoticed until 2021. The written Chinese of 2,400 years ago has been studied thoroughly. What is this supposed to mean?
https://www.taosurfers.com/ideasandwellbeing/2020/4/21/whats...
For this to be a literal translation, wouldn't you need to translate 可 as "call"?
道可道 非常道 ["The Dao can be spoken; it is not the constant Dao"]
or, from Mawangdui:
道可道也 非恆道也 ["The Dao can be spoken; it is not the constant Dao" - except that this version makes the division into sentences much clearer by using 也, and the use of a synonym for 常 really helps identify what sense of the character is meant.]
Dao 道 is of course the noun meaning "way" as well as the verb "say", explaining the traditional translation. But the character only appears three times. If the translation says "TAO called TAO is not TAO", that accounts for all three 道 characters. Where does "calling" show up?
The proposed translation "TAO called TAO is not TAO" mentions 道 three times, and it's always unambiguously a noun. So 'called' has to be coming from somewhere else, and the only other word in that sentence is 可.
How can you tell that the assumption you mentioned is incorrect? I.e. "that in 可道, 道 is a verb" is false? Is it something about the character itself or perhaps the syntax?
Following 可 is strong evidence that 道 is a verb, though I don't know enough to call it conclusive evidence.
The character 道 is identical between the noun meaning "way" and the verb meaning "say". To tell the difference, you can look at context or rely on traditional commentaries (of which there are many). In this case, the context should be sufficient.
道 [noun] 可道 [verb]。非常道 [noun]。
You're correct.
Having read numerous translations, that sounds perfectly comprehensible to me.
> The Reason that can be reasoned is not the eternal Reason.
He takes more poetic liberties than most translations.
It's been many years, but my notes say that this paper was helpful:
Alice W. Cheng, "The Master's Voice: On Reading, Translating and Interpreting the Analects of Confucius", The Review of Politics, Notre Dame. Vol 62, Issue 03, Summer 2000; pp 563-582. DOI: S0034670500041693
The text quoted from the OP doesn't appear to say that.
It is a testament to how twisted the copyright laws are that they result in this sort of situation.
And, no, Penguin will not now be sued for infringement unless they are now infringing.
Christopher Robin Milne himself died at age 75 a quarter-century ago, never ceasing to deplore the commercialization of his father's work ("climbing upon my infant shoulders"). His daughter Clare died in 02012. Disgracefully, I think that some of the Milne and Shepard work is still in copyright; The House at Pooh Corner wasn't published until 01928, and even Winnie-the-Pooh was published in 01926. The only Pooh material published early enough to be in the US public domain is the poem from When we Were Very Young. I think that in two and a half months Winnie-the-Pooh goes into the public domain in the US, but the other remains locked up until 02024. I'm not sure about, for example, the UK; https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=28926477 says in the UK it's locked up until 02027, which happens to be 15 years after Milne's last living descendant perished.
If Hoff is still alive in 02024, perhaps he will—by virtue of having outlived A.A. Milne by 68 years, almost four human generations—finally win the legal right to comment freely on the spiritual dimensions of Milne's work.
> (1) A derivative work prepared under authority of the grant before its termination may continue to be utilized under the terms of the grant after its termination, but this privilege does not extend to the preparation after the termination of other derivative works based upon the copyrighted work covered by the terminated grant.
The naïve way I read that is that Penguin can continue to sell any work they prepared under the previous grant. They just can't make any new editions. Is that the case?
When the relevant copyright act was written, the assumption was that this would be things like translations, screenplays and motion pictures created thereof, or similar major derivatives that are clearly distinct from the original.
Since then, jurisprudence has largely moved towards considering even smaller changes derivative works, but I'm not entirely sure if a book as laid out by a publisher with added illustrations is actually considered a "derivative work" of the original copyright in the manuscript. It is obviously derivative, as it is derived from the manuscript, but does it reach the level of a distinct "work"?
But I'd be curious whether it will allow Penguin to continue to print new books (provided they're identical to the ones they've previously printed) or just sell the existing print run. Presumably even if they had permission to sell it as an ebook, they would have issues continuing to sell it as an ebook as formats and standards inevitably change.
If so, Penguin does not owe him any royalties unless they continue publishing. It might also mean that he doesn't personally have rights to publish it himself, if it depends on copyrights somebody else holds and only licensed to Penguin, not him.
Unfortunately the page makes that pretty clear. The AA Milne estate still has a copyright on Winnie the Pooh for several more years and stated in one of the letters that they are "not in a position" to grant him a license (exclusive contract with Penguin?).
PartiallyTyped stops being the person directly opposite the other party, but instead becomes a commentator, one who explaining the thought processes of the person that sits opposite the other part; it just happens that the voice of the commentator is the same as that of the person, and the lips are synced, however, for all intents and purposes of that discussion, that person is a p-zombie, and the commentator somehow manifests into the head of the other party.
The commentator considers the case where the audience may be wondering why one would create such a scenario. PartiallyTyped uses that scenario to expresses her belief that free-will is an illusion. She believes that talking about her brain but referring to the p-zombie person enables the other party to understand her point of view; that is, that she is the person that arises or manifests out of the zombie, the person who experiences the world even though she is never in control.
I see what you did there!
also, what is weird anywho?
For those who haven't read it - here's the WikiData page: <https://www.wikidata.org/wiki/Q4154961>
Click the OCLC control number for a local library copy via WorldCat, or see the Open Library.
Quite a remarkable honor!
Surely this claim requires balancing the frequency of "would not have been rescued, except for Gilligan" against "would have been rescued, except for Gilligan"?
seems inflammatory to me; someone selling an e-book edition is certainly violating his rights, the purchaser is probably not.
Are they civily or crimimaly liable? Probably not, but IANAL. Bigger pockets would say sue the store and the publisher, not the clients.