The authority to mandate vaccines is at the state and local level.
The authority to mandate vaccines is at the state and local level.
If a business violates the OSHA rules and then doesn't pay the penalties, they are shut down and, if the business continues operating in violation of the regulators, arrested. That's the obvious and implicit statement. The police do that!
The police aren't out raiding houses but the police powers are obviously being used; it's the state's monopoly on violence! It's the government's biggest lever!
Just don't pretend that there isn't a clear threat of violence, when you are making laws that tell people what to do or take their money.
I never said anything about federal laws being invalid. I said they are enforced by police action. Which is obviously true.
But in general, American oligarchs have figured out that private enterprise is a good way to circumvent constitutional and legal limits to their power.
This is also how the surveillance state came into existence. BigTech is a de facto arm of the government while maintaining legal separation. It does the dirty work because it doesn't have to play by the same rules government must. As naive libertarians like to say, it's private so it's all consensual so it's cool, man.
Can OSHA mandate that employers create rules that employees must pass a physical fitness test? Must become vegetarian?
Then what's the FBI?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Police_power_(United_States_co...
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Police_power_(United_States_co...
> Federal police power has been defined by Supreme Court rulings. In affirming that Congress has limited power to enact legislation, the court ruled in United States v. Lopez (1995) that "The Constitution...withhold[s] from Congress a plenary police power that would authorize enactment of every type of legislation."[6][7] In United States v. Morrison (2000), the court invalidated a provision of a federal law on violent crime. The court stated, "The regulation and punishment of intrastate violence that is not directed at the instrumentalities, channels, or goods involved in interstate commerce has always been the province of the States...[W]e can think of no better example of the police power, which the Founders denied the National Government and reposed in the States, than the suppression of violent crime..."[6][8]
Do I get to use the same asinine reasoning they used in Wickard v. Filburn?
Because if not then your guess is as good as mine.