How can you say what is fictive and what not? Licensing fees and loans exist on market anyway.
Let's not give up without even trying.
When licensing costs are paid to a shell company with 3 employees in a country that is neither the place where the HQ are or where the company originates from, that's fictive.
If the court can prove that they did not handle with the intent of the law, it can still be decided that this is fraud. In a common law system this is not possible.
If the same owner is behind both, and there seems to be no other reason that avoiding taxes, guilty.
You can obfuscate fraud. But don't try that post-modern horseshit "what is being, man" on us.