I watched from the first vote, discussion of how to change the question, second vote, and post vote discussion. They didn't seem to want to wade into details of what "higher risk of severe covid-19" means (though bmi 35+ was mentioned) and figured the FDA and CDC would be more specific (panel vote, as I understand it, is non-binding and FDA can do whatever they want to it).

Using BMI to measure obesity is like relying purely on line coverage to measure the quality of software testing. Why is this still the go to measure? Is it just the cost of other measurements?

This is a really important point which is being missed by virtually all commentators on this topic.

As with most other studied diseases, the real risk factor comes not from high BMI per se but rather from excess visceral fat. This is linked to metabolic diseases like diabetes. Subcutaneous fat is much less dangerous.

https://www.researchsquare.com/article/rs-880193/v1

But it's expensive to measure visceral fat accurately. So from a public health standpoint BMI is a good enough proxy.

And what percent of those are six months after their second dose? I expect Pfizer to have phase three booster trial data on hand before any significant portion of those people become eligible under the coming EUA.

I'm trying to find that somewhere. I see obesity listed a possible comorbidity, but nowhere can I find a 25+ BMI (which is overweight not obese ~30BMI). Obesity would still cover 30-40% of Americans.