There has been politically motivated academic censorship forever. See what happened to communist academics throughout the 20th century.
>>> And I feel like in last 6-8 years, people have become far more intolerant regarding free speech
That's the proposition that this particular subthread is discussing.
Perhaps you don't care, but in that case I'm a bit confused about why you're commenting this far down-thread.
Which I gave prominent examples of.
The reply of which was simply examples from the USSR era (as opposed to right now in the Western World) without any other argument other than what seems to be whataboutism.
Concretely, the far stronger social reaction to slurs against gay people go hand in hand with people now being able to say "I'm gay" without repercussions.
> > I feel like in last 6-8 years, people have become far more intolerant regarding free speech.
> Which people, and what speech?
I responded with people and their speech that faced intolerance with total disregard for free speech. I doesn't even look like you are following the conversation anymore.
> Concretely, the far stronger social reaction to slurs against gay people go hand in hand with people now being able to say "I'm gay" without repercussions.
You are mixing up causation. People didn't accept homosexuality because certain words were banned, people stopped using words because they didn't like what they represented. And then it has gotten to another level where even statement of facts or simply making a point involving those words, in entirely different context causes outrage can cancellation.
The idea that words should get banned to make certain ideas or concept disappear à la 1984 is a very immature notion as other words can be forged.
Yes, I'm perfectly aware.
> I responded with people and their speech that faced intolerance with total disregard for free speech. I doesn't even look like you are following the conversation anymore.
Yes, I'm fully aware of how you responded. My point is that "people facing intolerance with total disregard for free speech" is not a new thing, as evidenced by the examples given from earlier times.
Breaking this down, you seem to think that giving examples of intolerance is enough to prove the initial claim, "people have become far more intolerant regarding free speech.", but it isn't. If someone else shows equal intolerance prior to the last 6-8 years, all your examples show is that the intolerance has not changed. You haven't shown that they've gotten worse, only that they haven't gotten better.
> You are mixing up causation.
You're once again misunderstanding my comment. I'm making the opposite causality argument than the one you appear to think I'm making.
As acceptance of gay people goes up, acceptance of slurs against gay people goes down. The question is, then, did we have "freer" speech when people faced criticism for saying "I am gay" as they did in the past, as compared to now where you face criticism for calling someone a slur?