I'm not sure I'm remembering the right case here, this happened more than once e.g. with some data from South Africa where low values were quotes without explaining that the studies simply were not large enough to get useful numbers for these subgroups.
I can sense your doubt ... we can even go to the factcheckers to see it. https://fullfact.org/health/german-astrazeneca-8-percent-han...
Robert Koch Institute (RKI), including its calculations on the vaccine’s efficacy data submitted by the manufacturers. These appeared to show the vaccine was just 6.3% effective among over 65s.
Why? TLDR: Too small group and too few cases in groups (one each) to be statistical significant.
I said at the start not statistically significant. That is becuase they designed a shitty trial, if you are going to have an insignificant number of 65+'s in the trial, then dont make the target endpoint 'the number of cases' then when reporting a low efficacy are shocked when people took it on face value and ignored the p-value. If you want to test for side effects / will it kill people then make that the endpoint for that section of the trial.
That is horrifically bad science and communication. But if you publish a headline number of 70% efficacy in under 65's and 6.3% efficacy in over 65's what are you meant to think? That is might be quasi-ineffective in over 65s?