Why are Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems not applicable to themselves?

Thanks for your reply! The problem I have is that the probative value of _anything_ seems to me to be based on the Axiom of axioms, which is Logic itself. I just don't understand how the provability, formality, or completeness of _anything_ may be achieved without having an unassailable tool that determines those things. We might say that Logic is that tool, but how does it sustain itself?

Although not answering the question, this recent article might indicate the start of a better way to frame your question :

https://edwardfeser.blogspot.com/2021/07/the-metaphysical-pr...

In other terms, first : What is logic ? In what context ?

Alternatively, there's the askphilosophy subreddit.