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'If a driver loses the appeal, they can ask for arbitration, though it costs them $200.'

How is this considered acceptable?

Presumably, it's in the contract and the contract is iron-clad.

Many years ago, I had a friend who was questioning a lawyer about a general indemnity clause in a contract. The lawyer said, "Don't worry about it too much. The courts don't like it when someone tries to take away your ability to seek legal satisfaction." I guess that has changed.

I thought the cost of arbitration was solely the responsibility of the employer? How is not a scam then to be forced into paid arbitration?

That may very well be the case. Companies tend to put all sorts of things into contracts that courts would never enforce. It pays because people believe the contract is valid and abide by it.

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