I skimmed the article you linked to[1], but I still don't understand the advantage of using the absolute risk reduction rather than the relative risk reduction (or the point of reporting both). It seems it's like the same information expressed differently. I'm guessing that there must be an intuitive advantage like measuring the fuel economy of a car in gallons per 100 miles rather than the usual miles per gallon, but I'm not seeing it. Can you explain further?

[1] Quoting the article's explanation of AAR vs RRR: "The vaccine and placebo groups in Figure 1 each have 100 randomly assigned individuals with no history of infection, and an event is defined as the incidence of infection among all individuals during the course of the trial. The percentage of events in the vaccine group is the experimental event rate (EER) or the risk of infection in the vaccine group (1/100 = 1%), and the percentage of events in the placebo group is the control event rate (CER) or the risk of infection in the placebo group (2/100 = 2%). Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is the disease risk difference between the placebo and vaccine groups, i.e., the CER minus the EER (2% − 1% = 1%). The ARR is also known as the vaccine disease preventable incidence (VDPI). Relative risk reduction (RRR) or vaccine efficacy (VE) is the reduced risk from vaccination, the ARR or VDPI, relative to or divided by the risk in unvaccinated individuals, the CER (1%/2% = 50%)".