Edited to add...
The article states: "the rules will aim to make companies pay more tax in the countries where they are selling their products or services, rather than wherever they end up declaring their profits."
The following scenario is unclear to me: A software company based in a European country sell their SaaS product to primarily US customers. The majority of their profits are made with US customers, but the company has no office presence in the US. Does that mean the profit from US sales is subject to the rules of this new tax law? (I assume not, but I could be mistaken.) I assume this law only applies if the company has a physical presence in the US. (But now wondering if my interpretation is correct!)