A bit of googling finds the name of the men that were murdered that night, Charles Pitts, 60, and Jackson Hamm, 65.
He admitted to murdering them. (Which is what a guilty plea fundamentally is.)
He admitted to murdering them. (Which is what a guilty plea fundamentally is.)
Isn't the accused sometimes advised to plead guilty (regardless of the truth of the matter) because he has little chance of winning a plea of innocence? Or is that just in fiction?