> but it is however discrimination based on race.
It is discrimination in your hypothetical where you've presupposed that discrimination played a causal role in the appraisal price.
There's no reason to suspect that discrimination played a role in this actual particular case, absent additional information.
Incompetence of the final appraiser or any number of explanations could fit.
You have to realize the layers of selection filters that are at work here:
- Someone is on the lookout for evidence of discrimination
- Someone reports a suspect case to a journalist
- Journalist decides to write an article
- HN user decides to post the article
- HN article gets upvoted and gets to front page
It's like a sales funnel. At each step, even if there isn't any discrimination, it's only the cases that are the most egregious (due to any number of causes, chance being a large one) that do not get pruned by the filters and therefore make it to the final step. Statistical variance can push through a large number of such articles.
That's why this isn't evidence, not even suggestive evidence. We're ignorant of all the filters that led to this last step. The only way to address cases like this where there isn't explicit evidence of discrimination (e.g. chat logs, recording, whatever), is to precommit to a methodology and then go from there. This is what's been done to good effect with things like policing.