To me that argument about "paying your fair share" never made any sense.

Wouldn't "fair share" be defined as how many/much of the government offerings you use?

So how is it that someone making $1m/yr in exchanges is somehow using MORE government offerings and therefore has to pay more in order to keep up with their "fair share"? Do they somehow use more roads because they have equities? Perhaps they use the sewage system more? Use more welfare dollars? Use more school?

Just makes no sense. It's straight up inequality and classism.