> Judge Carter ordered the city to place $1 billion in escrow; ordered the cessation of all sales or transfers of public lands;
Does the judge have the power to order such things?
> Judge Carter ordered the city to place $1 billion in escrow; ordered the cessation of all sales or transfers of public lands;
Does the judge have the power to order such things?
Seems like in limited circumstances where the government itself is implicated in harm, than yes.
The state-created-danger doctrine does not mean any of those [1,2]. The law is about direct physical harm by the inaction of individual officers, not any vague policy implications. This judge's interpretation of the law is as crazy as his ideology.
1 https://www.hg.org/legal-articles/legal-doctrine-of-state-cr...
2 https://scholarship.law.duke.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article...
No, it's not. Your own links directly contradict that; see, for example, the second paper and page 10 (not an officer of the law, not direct physical harm) and page 18 (officers of the law but no direct harm of any kind).
> when the government was an active, willing, and knowing participant in creating the conditions that lead to the need for aid. This is known as the “state-created-danger” doctrine. Judge Carter invokes this as the primary justification for his sweeping order
Most social problems aren't the clearly demonstrable product of deliberate government choice of the harm in this way.
The actual order is linked and has fairly extensive citations of precedent on that point, but, generally, yes, the federal courts have fairly extensive power to order equitable relief, even on a preliminary basis, where it finds actual (or, for preliminary orders, probable) Constitutional violations (and in some other cases, as well.)