Isn't this just language to make the law more explicit?
Isn't this just language to make the law more explicit?
A (control): rate of purchases of the item WITHOUT the ad present.
B (experiment): rate of purchases of the item WITH the ad present.
If A and B differ significantly then by definition the ad manipulates purchasers. And we all know companies track exactly these metrics, ripe for subpoena.(Separate question is whether this practice is bad for consumers; I'd argue "not all ads are bad" and "no ads is never bad" so to minimize harm, we should adopt "ads are bad until proven otherwise.")
And that's before you even get into the question of "what is an ad?" and "are all ads bad?" (which you mention) Because promo videos for things such as video games are common, but I wouldn't call them ads (per se). Are music singles ads for the whole album? Historically, music videos were called "promo videos" because their intent was: "we air this on MTV or the FM radio so that people will buy the album." Am I being advertised to there? Maybe? But what if I end up finding a new band I like?
You can't define this cleanly.
"I believe they won't do B unless I do A, so I do A."
"I believe they won't do B unless I do A" on its own is harmless—there's no action."I do A" on its own is unintentional. Does anyone really act without intent?
Legal systems have (imperfect) ways to ascertain intent (AKA premeditation), causality, and harm, so they can deal with the concept of manipulation.
Not that that means it's necessarily a bad approach, just never heard of marketing being limited by its effectiveness. Similar to having to put those gross pictures on cigarette packages now.
I'm really just suggesting we flip the burden of proof from harmed consumers to advertising companies.