- Can poverty explain, for example, why blacks in Wisconsin commit 2/3 of all violent crime while they are only 7% of the state's population? There are wholly White and Native American cities in Wisconsin that are dirt poor - the poorest - and yet they are not committing insanely high levels of crime.
>why it forces blacks to be far more criminal
I think the fact that UK blacks commit crimes at a far lower rate than US whites throws a wrench in this type of oversimplification of the racial landscape.
https://news.sky.com/story/amp/black-murder-victims-and-susp...
3% of the population and 13% of the murders in the UK.
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s41887-020-00055-y
5-6x homicide victimization rate vs whites, and 24x in males 18-24.
These multiples are fairly consistent globally.
It is clear US whites are far more likely to commit crimes.
Either way, all this proves is that the UK is overall a safer country than the US. But the racial disparities within each country are remarkably similar.
We can't remove bias and false criminalization from stats but the contrast between two sister countries is interesting nonetheless.
If the simplified overarching premise is "Blacks are uniquely criminal regardless of circumstance", why am I more likely to be a victim of criminality in a room filled with 1000 white Americans than 1000 black Brits?