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I imagine the data will be aggregated/anonymized.

If that does not exempt them from the antitrust allegations it's going to cost them dearly.

Why do you think that? Is data usually anonymised in private court orders in the US?

I can't imagine proof (or the worth of proof) for something imagined.

because the data is useless if not aggregated. Does the government really want to sift through billions of individual search queries with tons of metadata attached to each? No, they want to see trends from which conclusions can be drawn.

Anonymization is partly a result of aggregation, but also I can't see how and PII is relevant to the case here.

However, the government may ask for all the unaggregated search data so they can perform statistical analysis on it themselves... and "coincidently" gain access to a huge trove of personally identifying data. This is the US government we're talking about here - they do have a history of overreach in this area.

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