Also I don’t understand the impact of Wittgenstein‘a work on Godel’s discovery, could you clarify for me? What are the implications. The consensus I’ve read indicates it’s a misguided interpretstion
See the article referenced in this discussion.
http://wab.uib.no/agora/tools/alws/collection-6-issue-1-arti...
powerful Wittgenstein proof that existence of I'mUnprovable
means that mathematical foundations are inconsistent.
Wittgenstein's more powerful version is much more
devastating.
As mentioned previously in this discussion, the following
article explains why I'mUnprovable must not and does not
exist in foundations:
"Recrafting Foundations of Mathematics"